FMGE 2026 - Forensic Medicine PYQs Practice Questions

Q: DNA matching used for identification and comparison among family members is based on analysis of which genetic marker?

Short tandem repeats (STRs). ***Short tandem repeats (STRs)*** - These are polymorphic DNA sequences consisting of **short nucleotide sequences** (typically 2-6 base pairs) repeated in tandem, making them highly variable and ideal for **individual identification**. - Because they are highly polymorphic, they provide high **discriminatory power** required for distinguishing between individuals and determining familial relationships via inheritance patterns. *Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)* - While useful for gene mapping and ancestry studies, SNPs are **bi-allelic markers** (only two possible variations), offering less discriminatory power per locus than STRs. - They are typically used for specific trait analysis or large-scale genome-wide studies rather than the standard **commercial forensic profiling** protocols used for identification. *Ribosomal RNA genes* - These genes are highly **conserved** across species and individuals, evolved to maintain essential protein synthesis functions. - Due to their high conservation, they lack the **variability** necessary for forensic identification or distinguishing between specific individuals. *Mitochondrial DNA* - Mitochondrial DNA is inherited exclusively through the **maternal lineage**, making it incapable of distinguishing between maternal relatives. - It has a much lower **power of discrimination** compared to nuclear DNA (like STRs) because it represents a single, non-recombining haplotype shared by all maternally related individuals. [Practice more Forensic Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Identify the given fingerprint pattern: .

Whorl. ***Whorl*** - A **whorl** fingerprint pattern is characterized by circular, spiral-shaped, or concentric ridges that make at least one complete circuit. - It is distinguished by the presence of **two deltas** (triradii) on either side of the pattern, which is the defining feature for identifying it as a whorl. *Loop* - This is the most common fingerprint pattern, characterized by ridges that enter from one side, curve, and exit on the same side. - It typically possesses only a **single delta**, which distinguishes it from the whorl pattern. *Arch* - The **arch** pattern is the simplest, where ridges enter from one side, rise in the middle, and exit from the other side in a wave-like motion. - It is notable for the complete absence of **deltas** within the pattern, making it clearly distinct from a whorl. *Composite* - A **composite** pattern is a complex type that combines two or more different pattern types (e.g., a loop and a whorl or two loops) into a single print. - Because it is a combination, it lacks the uniform, symmetrical structure characteristic of a standard circular **whorl**. [Practice more Forensic Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A male is brought for medicolegal examination after sustaining a firearm injury. On examination, there is tattoing of skin, but no burning, singeing of hair, or charring is present. The margins of the wound are inverted. What is the most likely range of fire in this case?

Intermediate range. ***Intermediate range*** - The presence of **tattooing** (or powder stippling) on the skin without any **burning**, **singeing of hair**, or **charring** is pathognomonic for an intermediate range firearm injury. - At this distance, unburnt or partially burnt gunpowder particles are deposited on the skin, but the weapon is far enough away to avoid flame effects. *Close range* - Characterized by the combination of **tattooing** and flame effects, such as **singeing** of hair or **burning** of the skin edges. - This occurs when the weapon is near the target, allowing both particulate powder and hot gases to contact the skin. *Contact range* - Produces **charring**, **burning**, and **singeing** due to direct contact of the pressurized discharge gases with the skin. - Often presents with a **muzzle imprint** and **stellate, ragged margins** on the skin due to rapid gas expansion between the skin and underlying subcutaneous tissue. *Distant range* - Characterized by the complete absence of any discharge residue (powder **tattooing** or **soot**) and flame effects (**singeing/burning**). - The entrance wound typically shows only a simple perforation with an **abrasion collar**, as only the projectile strikes the skin. [Practice more Forensic Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A young male is brought for a medico-legal examination under court orders to determine his age for criminal liability for a rape case. Based on the given radiographic findings, what is the most likely age of the accused?

16-18 years. ***16-18 years*** - In a medico-legal age estimation for criminal liability, fusion of the **epiphysis** with the **metaphysis** of the **iliac crest** typically completes during this age bracket (often cited as occuring between 16-19 years). - Fusion of the **medial end of the clavicle** (the last ossification center to fuse) is the definitive marker for reaching skeletal maturity, which typically occurs by age **21-25**; therefore, an individual with partially fused or unfused medial clavicular epiphyses but completed fusion elsewhere is often classified as under 18. *12-14 years* - At this age, the **pelvis** and **vertebral bodies** show significant active growth, and the **iliac crest** epiphysis would generally be absent or just appearing. - **Secondary ossification centers** in the long bones are typically not fully fused at this developmental stage. *14-16 years* - While the **ischial tuberosity** might show signs of fusion, complete union of the **iliac crest** typically has not occurred yet. - Radiographically, this age reflects a stage where many **epiphyseal centers** are still open or actively fusing rather than reaching maturity. *18+ years* - Once an individual is 18+, the **medial end of the clavicle** should typically show signs of fusion, and the **iliac crest epiphysis** should be completely fused. - If the radiographic markers (specifically the **iliac crest** and **medial clavicular epiphysis**) show complete fusion, it is used to assign an age of maturity, typically excluding the 16-18 range. [Practice more Forensic Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A 29-year-old male presents within 24 hours of an alleged sexual assault by a co-worker. Which of the following sites is the most appropriate for specimen collection within 24 hours?

Anus for epithelial cells and semen. ***Anus for epithelial cells and semen*** - In cases of sexual assault occurring within 24 hours (or up to 72 hours), the **anal canal** is a prime site for collecting biological evidence including **spermatozoa** and **epithelial cells** (from the perpetrator). - This collection is prioritized because biological fluids and foreign DNA are rapidly lost through washing, defecation, or time, making early collection critical for **forensic identification**. *Oral cavity for semen* - While the oral cavity is a potential site for specimen collection, semen is typically cleared from the oral cavity relatively quickly, often within **6 to 12 hours**. - Given the 24-hour presentation limit, the likelihood of recovering viable **spermatozoa** or **DNA** in the oral cavity is significantly lower compared to the anal canal. *Nails* - **Nail scrapings** or clippings are collected specifically when there is a history of physical struggle or scratching during the assault. - They are not considered a primary or high-yield site for semen or epithelial cells in the absence of a reported physical altercation utilizing the hands. *Blood test* - Blood tests in sexual assault cases are primarily conducted to screen for **sexually transmitted infections (STIs)** or to detect **rape-facilitating drugs** (if intoxication is suspected). - They are not the method for collecting **biological trace evidence** (DNA/semen), which is essential for identifying the assailant. [Practice more Forensic Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

DNA matching used for identification and comparison among family members is based on analysis of which genetic marker?

Accepted Answer

Short tandem repeats (STRs)

Answer

Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)

Answer

Ribosomal RNA genes

Answer

Mitochondrial DNA

Question 2

Identify the given fingerprint pattern: .

Accepted Answer

Whorl

Answer

Loop

Answer

Arch

Answer

Composite

Question 3

A male is brought for medicolegal examination after sustaining a firearm injury. On examination, there is tattoing of skin, but no burning, singeing of hair, or charring is present. The margins of the wound are inverted. What is the most likely range of fire in this case?

Accepted Answer

Intermediate range

Answer

Close range

Answer

Contact range

Answer

Distant range

Question 4

A young male is brought for a medico-legal examination under court orders to determine his age for criminal liability for a rape case. Based on the given radiographic findings, what is the most likely age of the accused?

Accepted Answer

16-18 years

Answer

12-14 years

Answer

14-16 years

Answer

18+ years

Question 5

A 29-year-old male presents within 24 hours of an alleged sexual assault by a co-worker. Which of the following sites is the most appropriate for specimen collection within 24 hours?

Accepted Answer

Anus for epithelial cells and semen

Answer

Oral cavity for semen

Answer

Nails

Answer

Blood test

Question 6

Which among the following is the best sample for DNA in advanced burnt dead body?

Accepted Answer

Femur

Answer

Spleen

Answer

Enamel

Answer

Sternum

FMGE 2026 — Forensic Medicine