NEET-PG 2024 Practice Questions

Q: An adult tall male presents with a long arm span, pectus excavatum, and cardiac abnormalities. What is the most likely defective protein?

Fibrillin. ***Fibrillin*** - The constellation of **tall stature**, **long arm span**, **pectus excavatum**, and **cardiac abnormalities** (e.g., aortic dissection or mitral valve prolapse) is classic for **Marfan syndrome**. - Marfan syndrome is caused by a defect in the *FBN1* gene, which codes for **fibrillin-1**, a glycoprotein essential for the formation of elastic fibers in connective tissue. *Elastin* - Defects in **elastin** are associated with conditions like **supravalvular aortic stenosis** (due to **Williams syndrome**) or cutis laxa, which have different phenotypic presentations. - While both elastin and fibrillin are components of elastic fibers, the specific features of Marfan syndrome point to fibrillin as the primary defect. *Collagen* - Defects in **collagen** (especially type I, III, or V) are associated with conditions such as **osteogenesis imperfecta** (brittle bones) or **Ehlers-Danlos syndrome** (hypermobility, skin hyperextensibility). - These conditions typically present with different clinical manifestations, lacking the specific combination of features seen in this patient. *Myosin* - **Myosin** is a fibrous protein primarily involved in **muscle contraction** and is not directly implicated in widespread connective tissue disorders affecting skeletal and cardiovascular systems in this manner. - Defects in myosin are more commonly associated with various forms of **cardiomyopathy** or skeletal muscle myopathies, not Marfan-like features. *Laminin* - **Laminin** is a major component of the **basement membrane** and plays a role in cell adhesion, migration, and tissue architecture. - Laminin defects are associated with certain forms of **muscular dystrophy** (e.g., congenital muscular dystrophy) and **epidermolysis bullosa**, not the specific skeletal and cardiovascular features of Marfan syndrome.

Q: A nasal surgery was carried out with the incision shown in the image. What was the procedure likely carried out?

Open rhinoplasty. ***Open rhinoplasty*** - The image displays a **transcolumellar incision** (typically inverted V or W-shaped), which is the hallmark approach for **open rhinoplasty**. - This incision allows for direct visualization of the underlying nasal cartilages and bones, enabling precise reshaping of the nose. *Submucosal resection (SMR)* - SMR is a procedure to correct a **deviated nasal septum** by removing cartilage or bone from beneath the mucoperichondrial flaps. - It involves an **intranasal incision**, usually along the septal mucosa, not an external transcolumellar incision. *FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)* - FESS is a minimally invasive procedure used to treat **chronic sinusitis** and other sinus conditions. - It is performed entirely **endoscopically through the nostrils**, with no external incisions on the nasal columella. *Caldwell-Luc's procedure* - This procedure accesses the **maxillary sinus** through an incision in the upper gum beneath the lip. - It is used for drainage of the maxillary sinus or removal of foreign bodies/tumors, and does not involve an external nasal incision.

Q: In a patient with right vestibular neuronitis, what will be the finding on the head impulse test?

Head turned to right, corrective saccade to the left. ***Head turned to right, corrective saccade to the left*** - In **right vestibular neuronitis**, the right vestibular apparatus is impaired, affecting the **vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR)** on that side. - During the head impulse test, when the head is rapidly turned **to the right** (toward the affected side), the impaired VOR cannot maintain eye fixation on the target. - The eyes initially move **with the head** (to the right), then a visible **corrective saccade** (catch-up saccade) brings them **back to the left** to refixate on the target. - This corrective saccade is the **hallmark positive finding** in head impulse test for right vestibular dysfunction. *Head turned to left, corrective saccade to the right* - This would indicate a **left vestibular lesion**, not right vestibular neuronitis. - When turning the head to the left with left vestibular dysfunction, a corrective saccade to the right would be observed. *Head turned to right, no corrective saccade* - This would indicate **normal VOR function** on the right side. - A normal response shows no corrective saccade because the eyes maintain fixation throughout the head turn. - This is the **opposite** of what is expected in right vestibular neuronitis. *Head turned to left, no corrective saccade* - This indicates normal VOR function on the left side. - In right vestibular neuronitis, turning the head to the left (away from the affected side) typically shows **normal VOR** with no corrective saccade needed.

Q: A patient presents with conductive hearing loss, pulsatile tinnitus, and a positive Phelps sign. Based on the CT scan image provided, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Glomus Jugulare. ***Glomus Jugulare*** - The symptoms of **conductive hearing loss**, **pulsatile tinnitus**, and a **positive Phelps sign** (destruction of the bone separating the carotid artery from the jugular bulb on CT) are classic for a glomus jugulare tumor. - The CT scan image, showing a destructive lesion in the **jugular foramen** region, further supports this diagnosis, as these tumors originate from the paraganglia of the jugular bulb. *Glomus Tympanicum* - While it can cause conductive hearing loss and pulsatile tinnitus, a glomus tympanicum tumor is typically **confined to the middle ear cavity** and does not involve bone erosion of the jugular foramen as indicated by a positive Phelps sign. - The CT findings would show a mass in the middle ear, often behind an intact tympanic membrane, rather than extensive bone destruction in the jugular region. *Acoustic Neuroma* - This tumor, also known as a **vestibular schwannoma**, primarily causes **sensorineural hearing loss**, **tinnitus** (often non-pulsatile), and **balance issues**, not conductive hearing loss or pulsatile tinnitus. - An acoustic neuroma is located in the **cerebellopontine angle** and internal auditory canal, and the CT scan would show a mass in this specific location, not necessarily bone erosion of the jugular foramen. *Cholesteatoma* - A cholesteatoma is a **destructive, expanding growth of keratinizing squamous epithelium** in the middle ear or mastoid, typically presenting with **conductive hearing loss**, **otorrhea**, and sometimes headaches. - It does not typically cause pulsatile tinnitus unless it's very large and vascularized, nor does it present with the characteristic destruction of the jugular foramen seen with a positive Phelps sign.

Q: A patient with chronic nasal obstruction underwent a procedure 3 months ago and now presents with recurrent epistaxis, crusting, and the clinical image showing a septal perforation. What procedure was most likely carried out?

Submucosal resection (SMR). ***Submucosal resection (SMR)*** - **SMR** involves removing cartilage or bone from the nasal septum while preserving the septal mucosa. If both mucosal flaps are inadvertently damaged or devitalized during the procedure, it can lead to a **septal perforation** as a complication. - The symptoms of **recurrent epistaxis** and **crusting** are classic signs associated with compromised septal integrity and airflow changes due to a septal perforation, which commonly occurs weeks to months after such a procedure. *FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)* - **FESS** is primarily used to treat chronic sinusitis by opening and ventilating the sinuses; it does not directly involve the nasal septum in a way that typically causes perforation. - While complications are possible, a septal perforation is not a common or direct consequence of FESS, which focuses on ethmoid, maxillary, frontal, or sphenoid sinus drainage pathways. *Caldwell-Luc's procedure* - The **Caldwell-Luc procedure** involves an incision above the canine fossa to access the maxillary sinus. - It is specifically aimed at the maxillary sinus and does not involve surgical manipulation of the nasal septum that would lead to a septal perforation. *Turbinate reduction surgery* - **Turbinate reduction** procedures target the inferior turbinates to improve nasal airflow by reducing their size. - These procedures do not involve the nasal septum itself, so a septal perforation would not be a direct or common complication.

Q: Which of the following is an intracellular marker or deposition found in Alzheimer's disease?

Tau protein. ***Tau protein*** - **Tau protein** forms **neurofibrillary tangles** within the neurons, which is a hallmark intracellular lesion in Alzheimer's disease [1]. - These tangles disrupt neuronal transport systems, leading to **synaptic dysfunction** and cell death [1]. *A ̢ 40 / 42 (Amyloid-beta 40/42)* - **Amyloid-beta** peptides aggregate to form **extracellular amyloid plaques**, not intracellular deposits, in Alzheimer's disease [2]. - While central to the pathology, these **plaques** are found outside of the neurons in the brain parenchyma [2]. *Alpha-synuclein* - **Alpha-synuclein** is the primary component of **Lewy bodies**, which are intracellular inclusions characteristic of Parkinson's disease and Lewy body dementia. - It is not a primary marker for Alzheimer's disease pathology. *TDP-43* - **TDP-43 (TAR DNA-binding protein 43)** inclusions are characteristic of **frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD)** and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). - While sometimes co-occurs with Alzheimer's, it is not a primary or defining intracellular marker for Alzheimer's disease itself. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1292-1294. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1290-1292.

Q: A patient presents with headaches, palpitations, hypertension, and urine VMA positivity. The biopsy findings are shown in the image. Which of the following statements is correct?

Associated with MEN 2A. ***Associated with MEN 2A*** - The clinical presentation (headaches, palpitations, hypertension) and positive **urine VMA (vanillylmandelic acid)** strongly suggest a **pheochromocytoma**. - Pheochromocytomas are tumors of the adrenal medulla that secrete catecholamines and are frequently associated with **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2A (MEN 2A)**, along with medullary thyroid carcinoma and primary hyperparathyroidism. *Mostly malignant* - Pheochromocytomas are generally benign, with approximately **10% being malignant** ("rule of 10s"). - Malignancy is difficult to predict based on histology alone and is usually defined by the presence of **metastases**. *Mostly in children* - While pheochromocytomas can occur at any age, they are **more common in adults**, typically between 30 and 50 years old. - When they do occur in children, they are more often bilateral, extra-adrenal, or associated with genetic syndromes. *Mostly bilateral* - The majority of pheochromocytomas (approximately **90%**) are **unilateral**. - Bilateral pheochromocytomas are often seen in genetic syndromes such as **MEN 2**, von Hippel-Lindau disease, and neurofibromatosis type 1.

Q: A child presents with recurrent infections. Mediastinal imaging reveals an absent thymus gland, and further investigations show low ADA (adenosine deaminase) levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID). ***Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)*** - **Recurrent infections**, an **absent thymus gland** (indicating severe T-cell deficiency), and **low ADA levels** are classic features of SCID, specifically **ADA deficiency-SCID**. - ADA deficiency leads to the accumulation of toxic metabolites that destroy **B and T lymphocytes**, severely compromising both humoral and cellular immunity. *DiGeorge syndrome* - Characterized by **thymic hypoplasia or aplasia**, leading to T-cell deficiencies and recurrent infections, similar to the absent thymus. - However, DiGeorge syndrome is typically associated with **hypocalcemia** due to parathyroid hypoplasia, and **cardiac defects**, which are not mentioned, and **low ADA levels** are not a feature. *X-linked agammaglobulinemia* - Primarily affects **B-cell development**, leading to a severe deficiency of antibodies, resulting in recurrent bacterial infections. - **T-cell function** and the **thymus gland** are typically normal in this condition, and low ADA levels are not observed. *Hyper-IgM syndrome* - Characterized by normal or elevated levels of **IgM** but very low levels of **IgG, IgA, and IgE** due to defects in B-cell class switching. - The thymus gland is generally normal, and the primary defect lies in antibody production, not T-cell development or ADA deficiency. *Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome* - An X-linked immunodeficiency presenting with recurrent infections, but classically features the triad of **thrombocytopenia with small platelets**, **eczema**, and **immunodeficiency**. - The thymus is typically present, and **low ADA levels** are not characteristic of this syndrome.

Q: Which of the following is not seen with ileal resections?

Cognitive improvement. ***Cognitive improvement*** - Ileal resections are associated with malabsorption of various nutrients, but they do not lead to **cognitive improvement**. In fact, nutrient deficiencies (particularly B12) can negatively impact cognitive function. - The effects of ileal resections are primarily related to **digestion** and **absorption**, causing symptoms like diarrhea, weight loss, and specific vitamin deficiencies, not enhanced brain function. - This is the **most obvious answer** to what is "not seen" with ileal resections. *Microcytic hypochromic anemia* - This type of anemia is caused by **iron deficiency**, which is **NOT a direct consequence** of ileal resection. - **Iron absorption** occurs primarily in the **duodenum and proximal jejunum**, not in the ileum. - Ileal resection typically causes **macrocytic anemia** (due to B12 deficiency), not microcytic anemia. - While microcytic anemia could occur indirectly from chronic blood loss in inflammatory bowel disease, it is not a characteristic feature of ileal resection itself. *Nuclear cytological asynchrony* - **Nuclear cytological asynchrony** (megaloblastic changes) is a **direct consequence** of **vitamin B12 deficiency**, which commonly results from terminal ileal resection. - The **terminal ileum** is the primary site for absorption of **vitamin B12** (cobalamin) bound to intrinsic factor. - This manifests as macrocytic anemia with characteristic bone marrow changes. *Neurological manifestation* - **Vitamin B12 deficiency**, resulting from impaired absorption after ileal resection, directly causes various **neurological symptoms**. - These include **peripheral neuropathy**, **subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord** (posterior and lateral columns), paresthesias, ataxia, memory impairment, and cognitive changes. - Neurological symptoms may occur even before hematological changes become apparent.

Question 1

An adult tall male presents with a long arm span, pectus excavatum, and cardiac abnormalities. What is the most likely defective protein?

Accepted Answer

Fibrillin

Answer

Elastin

Answer

Collagen

Answer

Myosin

Answer

Laminin

Question 2

A nasal surgery was carried out with the incision shown in the image. What was the procedure likely carried out?

Accepted Answer

Open rhinoplasty

Answer

Submucosal resection (SMR)

Answer

FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)

Answer

Caldwell-Luc's procedure

Question 3

In a patient with right vestibular neuronitis, what will be the finding on the head impulse test?

Accepted Answer

Head turned to right, corrective saccade to the left

Answer

Head turned to left, corrective saccade to the right

Answer

Head turned to right, no corrective saccade

Answer

Head turned to left, no corrective saccade

Question 4

A patient presents with conductive hearing loss, pulsatile tinnitus, and a positive Phelps sign. Based on the CT scan image provided, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Glomus Jugulare

Answer

Glomus Tympanicum

Answer

Acoustic Neuroma

Answer

Cholesteatoma

Question 5

A patient with chronic nasal obstruction underwent a procedure 3 months ago and now presents with recurrent epistaxis, crusting, and the clinical image showing a septal perforation. What procedure was most likely carried out?

Accepted Answer

Submucosal resection (SMR)

Answer

FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)

Answer

Caldwell-Luc's procedure

Answer

Turbinate reduction surgery

Question 6

A 32-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of progressive, painless swelling in the left side of her neck. She also reports low-grade fever, night sweats, and unintentional weight loss. Physical examination reveals a firm, non-tender, immobile mass in the left cervical region, and multiple smaller lymph nodes in the supraclavicular area. Chest X-ray shows mediastinal widening, and a lymph node biopsy confirms the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Hodgkin Lymphoma with the ABVD regimen

Answer

NHL with a highly aggressive chemotherapy regimen

Answer

NHL with Rituximab

Answer

Hodgkin Lymphoma with surgical excision only

Answer

Hodgkin Lymphoma with radiation therapy only

Question 7

Which of the following is an intracellular marker or deposition found in Alzheimer's disease?

Accepted Answer

Tau protein

Answer

A β 40 / 42 (Amyloid-beta 40/42)

Answer

Alpha-synuclein

Answer

TDP-43

Question 8

A patient presents with headaches, palpitations, hypertension, and urine VMA positivity. The biopsy findings are shown in the image. Which of the following statements is correct?

Accepted Answer

Associated with MEN 2A

Answer

Mostly malignant

Answer

Mostly in children

Answer

Mostly bilateral

Question 9

A child presents with recurrent infections. Mediastinal imaging reveals an absent thymus gland, and further investigations show low ADA (adenosine deaminase) levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)

Answer

DiGeorge syndrome

Answer

X-linked agammaglobulinemia

Answer

Hyper-IgM syndrome

Answer

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Question 10

Which of the following is not seen with ileal resections?

Accepted Answer

Cognitive improvement

Answer

Microcytic hypochromic anemia

Answer

Nuclear cytological asynchrony

Answer

Neurological manifestation

NEET-PG 2024

Biochemistry

ENT

Internal Medicine

Pathology

Pediatrics

Surgery