NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: The junction between Retina & Ciliary body is?

Ora serrata. ***Ora serrata*** - The **ora serrata** represents the **anterior-most jagged edge** of the retina where the sensory retina terminates. [1] - It marks the transition point where the neural retina becomes the **non-photoreceptive ciliary body epithelium**. *Equator* - The **equator** is the imaginary line circling the globe of the eye, approximately equidistant from the anterior and posterior poles. - It is a landmark on the retina itself, indicating the approximate middle of the retina, and not its junction with the ciliary body. *Pars plicata* - The **pars plicata** is the anterior, folded portion of the **ciliary body** that produces aqueous humor. - While part of the ciliary body, it is anterior to the junction with the retina and not the junction itself. *Pars plana* - The **pars plana** is the posterior, relatively flat portion of the **ciliary body**, located between the ora serrata and the pars plicata. - It is a part of the ciliary body immediately adjacent to the ora serrata, but the ora serrata itself is the definitive junction.

Q: Acrodermatitis enteropathica is associated with a deficiency of which of the following?

Zinc. ***Zinc*** - Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a rare, inherited metabolic disorder characterized by a **deficiency in zinc absorption** or utilization. - Clinical manifestations include a characteristic **periorificial and acral dermatitis**, alopecia, and diarrhea, all of which respond dramatically to zinc supplementation. *Manganese* - Manganese is a trace element essential for various enzyme functions, but its deficiency does not cause acrodermatitis enteropathica. - Deficiency symptoms include impaired growth, skeletal abnormalities, and reproductive problems. *Copper* - Copper deficiency can lead to anemia, neutropenia, and neurological problems, but it is not associated with acrodermatitis enteropathica. - Conditions like Menkes disease involve problems with copper transport and metabolism. *Selenium* - Selenium deficiency can contribute to Keshan disease (cardiomyopathy) and impaired immune function. - It is not directly linked to the dermatological and gastrointestinal symptoms seen in acrodermatitis enteropathica.

Q: Laryngitis sicca is associated with ?

Klebsiella rhinoscleromatosis. ***Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis*** - **Laryngitis sicca** is characterized by extreme dryness and crusting of the laryngeal mucosa, which is a known manifestation of complications due to **Rhinoscleroma**. - **Rhinoscleroma** is a chronic granulomatous disease caused by *Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis* (formerly *K. rhinoscleromatosis*), primarily affecting the upper respiratory tract including the larynx. *Rhinosporidium* - **Rhinosporidium seeberi** is an aquatic protistan parasite that causes **rhinosporidiosis**, characterized by friable, polypoidal lesions, often in the nose, but typically not laryngitis sicca. - The lesions caused by Rhinosporidium are usually vascular and bleeding, rather than dry and crusting. *M. leprae* - **Mycobacterium leprae** is the causative agent of **leprosy**, a chronic infectious disease primarily affecting the skin, peripheral nerves, upper respiratory tract mucosa, eyes, and testes. - While *M. leprae* can affect the larynx, it typically causes **granulomatous infiltration** and nodule formation leading to hoarseness and stridor, not specifically laryngitis sicca. *Klebsiella ozaenae* - *Klebsiella ozaenae* is associated with **ozena**, a form of chronic atrophic rhinitis characterized by a foul odor, crusting, and atrophy of nasal mucosa. - While it causes dryness and crusting, its primary manifestation is in the **nasal cavity**, and it is not directly linked to laryngitis sicca in the context tested here.

Q: Polyopia/diplopia is seen in which type of cataract?

Cortical cataract. ***Cortical cataract*** - **Cortical cataracts** cause spokes or vacuoles that refract light in multiple directions, leading to **polyopia** or **diplopia**. - The irregular opacities disrupt the light path, causing the brain to perceive **multiple images**. *Nuclear cataract* - **Nuclear cataracts** primarily affect central vision and cause **myopic shift**, not typically polyopia or diplopia. - They cause **blurry vision** and difficulty seeing in dim light as the lens nucleus hardens and yellows. *Posterior subcapsular cataract* - **Posterior subcapsular cataracts** are characterized by glare and difficulty with reading, mainly affecting near vision. - They form at the back of the lens, close to the nodal point, causing earlier onset of **visual symptoms** with less impact on polyopia. *Anterior polar cataract* - **Anterior polar cataracts** are usually small, well-demarcated opacities at the front of the lens that typically do not cause significant visual impairment. - They rarely cause **polyopia** unless they are very large or dense, which is uncommon.

Q: At what age can an infant typically achieve head control or neck holding?

3 months. ***3 months*** - By **3 months** of age, an infant typically develops sufficient **neck muscle strength** and control to hold their head steady when sitting upright or pulled to a sit. - This milestone indicates maturation of the **cervical muscles** and nervous system coordination necessary for head stability. *1 month* - At **1 month**, an infant usually has very little head control and their head will **lag significantly** when pulled to a sitting position. - Neck muscles are still relatively weak, and the infant is unable to maintain the head in an upright posture against gravity. *2 months* - While some improvement in head control may be observed around **2 months**, the infant's head will still generally **wobble** and lag when moved. - Sustained, steady head holding is not typically achieved at this age, and support is still largely required. *6 months* - By **6 months**, an infant should have **excellent head control** and be able to easily hold their head steady and upright. - This age marks the development of other motor milestones like sitting with support or independently, which require strong neck and core muscles.

Q: All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except which of the following?

Thick ear cartilage. ***Thick ear cartilage*** - **Thick ear cartilage with well-formed incurving of the pinna** is a feature of a **mature** or **full-term** neonate. - In premature neonates, the ear cartilage is typically **thin, soft, and flexible**, with less developed incurving. *Abundant lanugo* - **Lanugo**, fine soft hair, is typically abundant on the back and shoulders of **premature neonates**. - This hair is often shed by full-term babies before or shortly after birth. *Empty scrotum* - An **empty scrotum** indicates undescended testes, which is common in **premature male neonates**. - Testicular descent typically occurs later in gestation. *No creases on sole* - The absence or scarcity of **creases on the sole of the foot** is characteristic of **premature neonates**. - As gestational age increases, the number and depth of plantar creases increase.

Q: What is the drug of choice for managing generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCS) during pregnancy?

Lamotrigine. ***Lamotrigine*** - **Lamotrigine** is considered **one of the preferred drugs** for managing epilepsy during pregnancy due to its relatively **low teratogenic risk** compared to older antiepileptic drugs. - Its established safety profile in pregnancy makes it a preferred option to balance seizure control and **fetal well-being**. - **Important Note:** For **GTCS specifically**, lamotrigine and levetiracetam are both considered appropriate first-line choices, with selection depending on individual patient factors and seizure control history. - Lamotrigine levels **decrease during pregnancy** and require monitoring and dose adjustments. *CBZ* - **Carbamazepine (CBZ)** is associated with an increased risk of **neural tube defects** and other congenital malformations when used during pregnancy, making it less favorable. - While effective for GTCS, its teratogenicity often leads to avoidance or careful consideration of alternatives in pregnant women. *Levetiracetam* - **Levetiracetam** is increasingly recognized as an **excellent choice for GTCS in pregnancy** with a favorable safety profile and growing evidence base. - Many recent guidelines and clinical practices favor levetiracetam as **first-line for GTCS** due to its low risk of major congenital malformations and good efficacy. - It is a **medically appropriate alternative** to lamotrigine, and in some contexts may be preferred, particularly for primary generalized epilepsy. *Valproate* - **Valproate** has the highest risk of **teratogenicity** among common antiepileptic drugs, including a significant risk of **neural tube defects**, developmental delay, autism spectrum disorder, and other anomalies. - Due to these significant risks, valproate is generally **contraindicated** in women of childbearing potential, especially during pregnancy, unless no other effective and safer alternative exists.

Q: Result of liquorice ingestion

Hypokalemic alkalosis. ***Hypokalemic alkalosis*** - **Licorice** contains **glycyrrhizic acid**, which inhibits **11β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase** in the kidneys, preventing the conversion of cortisol to inactive cortisone. - This leads to increased cortisol acting on **mineralocorticoid receptors**, mimicking **aldosterone excess**, resulting in **sodium reabsorption**, **potassium excretion** (hypokalemia), and **hydrogen ion excretion** (metabolic alkalosis). *Hyperkalemic alkalosis* - This option is incorrect because licorice ingestion leads to **hypokalemia** due to increased potassium excretion, not hyperkalemia. - While it does cause alkalosis, the associated potassium imbalance is the opposite of this choice. *Hypokalemic acidosis* - This option is incorrect because licorice ingestion causes a **metabolic alkalosis** due to increased hydrogen ion excretion, not acidosis. - Although it correctly identifies hypokalemia, the acid-base disturbance is wrong. *Hypernatremic acidosis* - This option is incorrect as licorice ingestion initially causes **sodium and water retention** (which can lead to hypernatremia in severe cases, but is not the primary driver of the acid-base), but primarily leads to **metabolic alkalosis**, not acidosis. - The combination of hypernatremia and acidosis is not characteristic of licorice toxicity.

Q: What is the best imaging view for assessing the nasal bone in X-ray?

Lateral. ***Lateral*** - The **lateral view** provides a clear profile of the nasal bones, allowing for the best assessment of fractures, displacement, and angulation. - It visualizes the nasal bone in relation to other facial structures, which is crucial for treatment planning. *Towne's* - The **Towne's view** is primarily used to visualize the **occipital bone** and the **foramen magnum**, not the nasal bones. - It projects the petrous pyramids inferiorly, which would obstruct the view of the nasal region. *Caldwell* - The **Caldwell view** is primarily used to assess the **frontal sinuses**, **ethmoid sinuses**, and **orbits**. - While it offers some visualization of the nasal region, it does not provide the detailed lateral projection needed for optimal nasal bone assessment. *Submentovertical* - The **submentovertical view** (also known as the **basal view**) is primarily used to visualize the **base of the skull**, **sphenoid sinuses**, and **zygomatic arches**. - This view does not offer a direct or clear projection of the nasal bones themselves.

Q: Prepyloric or channel ulcer in the stomach is termed as:

Type 3. ***Type 3*** - **Type 3 ulcers** are located in the **prepyloric region** or within the **pyloric channel** of the stomach. - They are often associated with **duodenal ulcers** and are characterized by **normal to high acid secretion**. *Type 1* - **Type 1 ulcers** are typically found in the **lesser curvature of the stomach body**, not the prepyloric region. - These ulcers are usually associated with **low or normal acid secretion** and are often linked to *H. pylori* infection. *Type 2* - **Type 2 ulcers** involve both a **gastric ulcer** (usually in the body) and an **active or healed duodenal ulcer**. - They are associated with **normal to high acid secretion**, but the location is not exclusively prepyloric. *Type 4* - **Type 4 ulcers** are located high on the **lesser curvature near the gastroesophageal junction**. - They are associated with **low acid secretion** and are sometimes termed **juxta-esophageal ulcers**.

Question 1

The junction between Retina & Ciliary body is?

Accepted Answer

Ora serrata

Answer

Equator

Answer

Pars plicata

Answer

Pars plana

Question 2

Acrodermatitis enteropathica is associated with a deficiency of which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Zinc

Answer

Manganese

Answer

Copper

Answer

Selenium

Question 3

Laryngitis sicca is associated with ?

Accepted Answer

Klebsiella rhinoscleromatosis

Answer

Rhinosporidium

Answer

M. leprae

Answer

Klebsiella ozaenae

Question 4

Polyopia/diplopia is seen in which type of cataract?

Accepted Answer

Cortical cataract

Answer

Nuclear cataract

Answer

Posterior subcapsular cataract

Answer

Anterior polar cataract

Question 5

At what age can an infant typically achieve head control or neck holding?

Accepted Answer

3 months

Answer

1 month

Answer

2 months

Answer

6 months

Question 6

All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Thick ear cartilage

Answer

Abundant lanugo

Answer

Empty scrotum

Answer

No creases on sole

Question 7

What is the drug of choice for managing generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCS) during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Lamotrigine

Answer

CBZ

Answer

Levetiracetam

Answer

Valproate

Question 8

Result of liquorice ingestion

Accepted Answer

Hypokalemic alkalosis

Answer

Hyperkalemic alkalosis

Answer

Hypokalemic acidosis

Answer

Hypernatremic acidosis

Question 9

What is the best imaging view for assessing the nasal bone in X-ray?

Accepted Answer

Lateral

Answer

Towne's

Answer

Submentovertical

Answer

Caldwell

Question 10

Prepyloric or channel ulcer in the stomach is termed as:

Accepted Answer

Type 3

Answer

Type 1

Answer

Type 4

Answer

Type 2

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Dermatology

ENT

Ophthalmology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Physiology

Radiology

Surgery