NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy?

Aortic aneurysm. ***Aortic aneurysm*** - An aortic aneurysm, especially of the ascending aorta, is **less likely to cause bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy** because the left recurrent laryngeal nerve typically hooks under the aortic arch, while the right nerve hooks under the subclavian artery. - For **bilateral involvement**, two separate and simultaneous lesions affecting both nerves would be required at different anatomical locations with this etiology, making it a rare cause. *Thyroid carcinoma* - An aggressive **thyroid carcinoma** can directly invade or compress the recurrent laryngeal nerves (RLNs) due to their proximity to the thyroid gland. - If the carcinoma is extensive or multifocal, it can lead to **bilateral involvement** by affecting both nerves. *Lymphadenopathy* - Significant **cervical or mediastinal lymphadenopathy** (e.g., due to metastatic disease or lymphoma) can compress or encase both recurrent laryngeal nerves. - This proximity allows for potential **bilateral compression or damage** to the nerves as they ascend in the tracheoesophageal grooves. *Thyroid surgery* - **Thyroidectomy** is a common cause of recurrent laryngeal nerve injury due to the nerves' close anatomical relationship with the thyroid gland. - **Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy** can occur if both nerves are damaged during dissection, often due to surgical misidentification, thermal injury, or traction.

Q: What investigation uses dye to find out stones in the salivary gland?

Sialography. ***Sialography*** - **Sialography** is an imaging technique that involves injecting a **radiopaque dye** into the salivary ducts to visualize the internal structure and identify obstructions like stones (**sialoliths**). - This method allows for detailed imaging of the ductal system, revealing the exact location and size of stones or strictures. *Breast imaging* - **Breast imaging**, such as mammography or ultrasound of the breast, is used to detect abnormalities within the **breast tissue**. - It is completely unrelated to the diagnosis of salivary gland stones. *MR angiography* - **MR angiography (MRA)** is a type of MRI that specifically visualizes **blood vessels** and blood flow throughout the body. - It is used to detect vascular diseases, not obstructions in salivary glands. *USG* - **Ultrasound (USG)** can visualize salivary gland stones, but it does not typically involve the use of an injected dye for this purpose. - While useful for initial screening, **sialography** provides a more detailed view of the ductal system, especially smaller or more complex stones.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about rhinophyma?

Acne rosacea. ***Acne rosacea*** - **Rhinophyma** is a severe form of **acne rosacea**, characterized by sebaceous gland hypertrophy and connective tissue hyperplasia on the nose. - It specifically represents the **phymatous subtype** of rosacea, which involves thickening of the skin. *Premalignant* - Rhinophyma itself is generally **not considered premalignant** to skin cancer. - While skin cancers like **basal cell carcinoma** can rarely occur within rhinophyma, the condition itself does not inherently transform into malignancy. *Common in alcoholics* - This is a **common misconception**; while often associated with heavy alcohol use, there is no direct causal link. - The development of rhinophyma is primarily driven by the underlying pathogenesis of **rosacea**, not alcohol consumption. *Fungal etiology* - Rhinophyma is primarily an inflammatory skin condition, not caused by **fungal infection**. - Its etiology is complex, involving genetics, environmental triggers, and vascular dysregulation, but **microbial involvement** is typically bacterial (e.g., Demodex mites) rather than fungal.

Q: In which condition is Cepacia syndrome most commonly associated?

Cystic fibrosis. ***Cystic fibrosis*** - **Cepacia syndrome** is a severe and often fatal complication in patients with **cystic fibrosis** caused by infection with bacteria of the *Burkholderia cepacia complex*. - Patients with cystic fibrosis have impaired mucociliary clearance, making them highly susceptible to chronic bacterial infections, including those leading to Cepacia syndrome. *Sarcoidosis* - **Sarcoidosis** is a multisystem inflammatory disease characterized by the formation of **non-caseating granulomas**, primarily affecting the lungs and lymph nodes. - It is not associated with bacterial infections causing Cepacia syndrome. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis** is caused by *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* and primarily affects the lungs, leading to granuloma formation and tissue destruction. - While it is a chronic bacterial infection, it does not typically lead to or interact with the *Burkholderia cepacia complex* in the way seen in Cepacia syndrome. *Immotile cilia syndrome* - Also known as **primary ciliary dyskinesia**, this condition involves defective ciliary function leading to recurrent respiratory infections and other issues like situs inversus. - Although patients have recurrent respiratory infections, **Cepacia syndrome** is not a characteristic or commonly associated complication.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Refsum disease?

CCF. ***CCF*** - **Congestive cardiac failure (CCF)** is generally **not a primary feature** or common complication of Refsum disease. While some cardiac abnormalities can occur, severe CCF is rare. - Refsum disease is characterized by the accumulation of **phytanic acid**, which primarily affects the nervous system, skin, and eyes. *Ataxia* - **Cerebellar ataxia** is a very common and prominent neurological symptom in Refsum disease, due to damage to the cerebellum. - Patients often present with **unsteady gait and poor coordination**. *Ichthyosis* - **Ichthyosis** (dry, scaly skin) is a characteristic dermatological manifestation of Refsum disease, occurring in nearly all patients. - It is caused by the disruption of **lipid metabolism** in the skin due to phytanic acid accumulation. *Retinitis pigmentosa* - **Retinitis pigmentosa** is one of the classic ocular features of Refsum disease, leading to **night blindness** and progressive **visual field loss**. - It involves the degeneration of photoreceptor cells in the retina.

Q: Which of the following is commonly seen in Polycythemia Vera?

Thrombosis. ***Spontaneous severe infection*** - In Polycythemia Vera, there is usually an **increased red blood cell mass** leading to complications like thrombosis, rather than a predisposition to severe infections. - Severe infections are not a typical feature, as the condition usually maintains **functional immunity** despite hyperviscosity. *Thrombosis* - Individuals with Polycythemia Vera have increased blood viscosity that results in a higher risk of **thrombosis**, which is a common complication [1]. - Events like **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** or **cerebral venous sinus thrombosis** are often observed due to altered hemodynamics. *Hyperuricemia* - Hyperuricemia occurs due to increased cell turnover and breakdown of red cells in Polycythemia Vera, leading to elevated **uric acid levels** [1]. - Patients may experience **gout attacks** as a consequence of this elevated uric acid [1]. *Prone for acute leukemia* - While there is an increased risk of transformation to myeloid neoplasms, the risk for **acute leukemia** is not directly attributed to Polycythemia Vera in most cases. - It is more related to myelofibrosis or secondary conditions developing over time rather than a direct association.

Q: The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:

Aneurysm. ***Aneurysm*** - Aneurysms, particularly **saccular** or **berry aneurysms**, are the most frequent cause of **spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)**, accounting for about 80-85% of cases [2]. - The sudden rupture of an intracranial aneurysm leads to blood spilling into the **subarachnoid space**, causing characteristic symptoms like a "thunderclap headache" [1]. *Arterio-venous malformation* - While AV malformations (AVMs) can cause SAH, they are a less common cause than aneurysms, accounting for approximately 5-10% of cases. - AVMs are abnormal direct connections between arteries and veins that bypass the capillary system and can rupture, leading to SAH or intraparenchymal hemorrhage. *Cavernous angioma* - Cavernous angiomas are abnormal clusters of dilated, thin-walled capillaries that can lead to hemorrhage, but they primarily cause **intraparenchymal hemorrhage** rather than SAH. - They are much less likely to result in diffuse bleeding into the subarachnoid space compared to ruptured aneurysms. *Hypertension* - Hypertension is a significant risk factor for the formation and rupture of aneurysms [1], but it is not a direct cause of SAH itself in the same way an aneurysm rupture is. - While uncontrolled hypertension is often associated with **intracerebral hemorrhage** (bleeding within the brain tissue), its direct role in causing SAH is usually secondary to an underlying vascular abnormality like an aneurysm.

Q: Which of the following conditions is NOT diagnosed by fluorescein angiography?

Hypertensive retinopathy. ***Hypertensive retinopathy*** - This condition is primarily diagnosed by **clinical fundoscopic examination**, not fluorescein angiography - Diagnosis is based on characteristic clinical findings: **arteriovenous nicking, copper/silver wire arterioles, cotton-wool spots, flame-shaped hemorrhages, and papilledema** in severe cases - **Fluorescein angiography** is rarely needed and only used in research settings or to assess severe complications; it is **not a standard diagnostic tool** for hypertensive retinopathy *Diabetic retinopathy* - **Fluorescein angiography** is extensively used for diagnosing and staging diabetic retinopathy - It helps identify **microaneurysms, capillary non-perfusion areas, macular edema, and neovascularization** - Essential for detecting **proliferative diabetic retinopathy** and planning laser photocoagulation *Central serous retinopathy* - **Fluorescein angiography** shows characteristic **"smokestack" or "inkblot" pattern** of leakage at the RPE level - Demonstrates one or more **leakage points** with progressive pooling of dye in the subretinal space - While **OCT** is now preferred for initial diagnosis, FA remains valuable for identifying leakage sites and guiding treatment *Choroidal neovascularization* - **Fluorescein angiography** is the gold standard for diagnosing **choroidal neovascularization (CNV)** - Shows **early hyperfluorescence with progressive leakage** from abnormal vessels - Critical for determining the **type (classic vs occult), location, and extent** of CNV for treatment planning

Q: Block vertebrae are seen in which condition?

Klippel-Feil syndrome. ***Klippel-Feil syndrome*** - **Block vertebrae** are a characteristic radiographic finding in **Klippel-Feil syndrome**, resulting from the congenital fusion of two or more cervical vertebrae. - This fusion leads to a **short neck**, **low hairline**, and **restricted neck motion**. *Pagets disease* - **Paget's disease** is a chronic condition of abnormal bone remodeling, leading to enlarged and weakened bones. - While it can cause vertebral body changes, **block vertebrae** resulting from congenital fusion are not a typical feature. *Leukemia* - **Leukemia** involves uncontrolled proliferation of abnormal white blood cells, which can infiltrate bone marrow and cause lytic or blastic lesions in bones. - It does not cause **block vertebrae**, which are a developmental anomaly. *TB* - **Tuberculosis (TB) of the spine (Pott's disease)** is an infectious condition causing vertebral destruction, collapse, and kyphosis. - While TB can lead to vertebral collapse and eventual fusion during healing, the primary pathology is destructive and not the congenital fusion seen as **block vertebrae**.

Q: The most common cause of per rectal bleeding in infants is:

Anal fissure. ***Anal fissure*** - **Anal fissures** are tiny tears in the **anus** lining, causing bright red blood on the stool surface or diaper. - They are very common in infants due to **constipation** or passing **hard stools**, leading to trauma. *Rectal polyp* - Rectal polyps can cause **painless rectal bleeding**, but they are **less common** than anal fissures in infants. - Bleeding from polyps is usually **intermittent** and can be darker or mixed with stool. *Intussusception* - Intussusception presents with sudden onset of **crampy abdominal pain**, **vomiting**, and **currant jelly stools** (blood mixed with mucus). - This condition is an **emergency** and typically affects infants between 3 months and 3 years old. *Meckel's diverticulum* - **Meckel's diverticulum** can cause painless, recurrent **dark red or maroon bleeding**, often described as "brick-red" due to ectopic gastric mucosa. - While a significant cause of bleeding, it is **less common** than anal fissures as the primary etiology in infants.

Question 1

Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy?

Accepted Answer

Aortic aneurysm

Answer

Thyroid carcinoma

Answer

Lymphadenopathy

Answer

Thyroid surgery

Question 2

What investigation uses dye to find out stones in the salivary gland?

Accepted Answer

Sialography

Answer

MR angiography

Answer

USG

Answer

Breast imaging

Question 3

Which of the following statements is true about rhinophyma?

Accepted Answer

Acne rosacea

Answer

Premalignant

Answer

Common in alcoholics

Answer

Fungal etiology

Question 4

In which condition is Cepacia syndrome most commonly associated?

Accepted Answer

Cystic fibrosis

Answer

Immotile cilia syndrome

Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Tuberculosis

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Refsum disease?

Accepted Answer

CCF

Answer

Retinitis pigmentosa

Answer

Ataxia

Answer

Ichthyosis

Question 6

Which of the following is commonly seen in Polycythemia Vera?

Accepted Answer

Thrombosis

Answer

Hyperuricemia

Answer

Prone for acute leukemia

Answer

Spontaneous severe infection

Question 7

The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:

Accepted Answer

Aneurysm

Answer

Arterio-venous malformation

Answer

Cavernous angioma

Answer

Hypertension

Question 8

Which of the following conditions is NOT diagnosed by fluorescein angiography?

Accepted Answer

Hypertensive retinopathy

Answer

Diabetes retinopathy

Answer

Central serous retinopathy

Answer

Choroidal neovascularization

Question 9

Block vertebrae are seen in which condition?

Accepted Answer

Klippel-Feil syndrome

Answer

Pagets disease

Answer

Leukemia

Answer

TB

Question 10

The most common cause of per rectal bleeding in infants is:

Accepted Answer

Anal fissure

Answer

Rectal polyp

Answer

Intussusception

Answer

Meckel's diverticulum

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Dental

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Orthopaedics

Pediatrics