NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: In typhoid, a person is considered a permanent carrier if they excrete bacilli for more than how many months?

1 year. **1 year** - A person is defined as a permanent carrier of typhoid if they excrete **Salmonella Typhi** in their feces or urine for **more than one year** after the acute illness. - This long-term excretion is often associated with chronic infection of the **gallbladder**, particularly in individuals with gallstones. - The definition of chronic/permanent carrier status is set at **≥12 months** of continuous bacillary excretion. *3 months* - Excreting bacilli for 3 months after acute typhoid is considered a **convalescent carrier state**, not a permanent one. - Many individuals clear the infection within this timeframe without becoming chronic carriers. *6 months* - While prolonged, 6 months of excretion still falls under the definition of a **convalescent or temporary carrier**, rather than a permanent carrier. - The threshold for "permanent" or "chronic" carrier status is typically set at 12 months. *3 years* - While a person excreting bacilli for 3 years would certainly be a permanent carrier, the established definition for permanent carrier status is met at **1 year**, not 3 years. - This option represents an unnecessarily longer duration than the standard definition.

Q: Which of the following best defines the concept of 'Quality of Life'?

Subjective feeling of well being. ***Subjective feeling of well being*** - **Quality of Life** is primarily a **subjective measure**, reflecting an individual's personal perception of their well-being and satisfaction with various aspects of their life. - It encompasses physical health, psychological state, social relationships, personal beliefs, and their relationship to their environment. *Standard of living* - **Standard of living** typically refers to the degree of wealth and material comfort available to a person or community. - This is an **objective, economic measure** and does not fully capture the subjective, multi-dimensional aspects of well-being. *Level of living* - The **level of living** is closely related to the standard of living, focusing on the actual conditions of life experienced by individuals, often in terms of material possessions, housing, and access to services. - Like standard of living, it is more about **objective and measurable aspects** of life rather than subjective feelings. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because "Subjective feeling of well being" accurately defines **Quality of Life**. - **Quality of Life** is a complex, multi-faceted concept that integrates both objective and subjective factors, with the subjective feeling of well-being being central to its definition.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a criterion for defining a polio epidemic?

Cases occurring during a 6 month period. ***Correct: Cases occurring during a 6 month period*** - The definition of a polio epidemic primarily focuses on criteria like the number of cases, their geographical proximity, and the viral serotype causing the infection, not a specific duration of time over which cases occur. - While an outbreak naturally unfolds over a period, a fixed 6-month window is **not a formal defining criterion** for an epidemic, which typically emphasizes a sudden, significant increase above expected levels. *Incorrect: 2 or more cases* - An epidemic is generally defined by an **unusual increase in disease incidence**, and even two confirmed cases, especially in areas with low endemicity or where polio is eradicated, can signal an outbreak. - The presence of **two or more paralytic polio cases** within a specific area is often considered a critical threshold for declaring an epidemic, particularly for **wild poliovirus**. *Incorrect: Cases should occur in same locality* - For an epidemic to be declared, the cases must be **geographically linked** to indicate a common source or local transmission. - Cases spread across different, unconnected regions would suggest **sporadic occurrences** rather than a localized epidemic. *Incorrect: Caused by same virus type* - An epidemic implies a **common etiologic agent**, meaning the cases should be linked to the same serotype of **poliovirus** (e.g., wild poliovirus type 1). - If cases are caused by different serotypes, it indicates **multiple independent introductions** rather than a single epidemic outbreak.

Q: What is the schedule of intradermal rabies vaccine?

2-0-2-0-1-1. ***2-0-2-0-1-1*** - This schedule represents the **Thai Red Cross (TRC) regimen** for intradermal rabies vaccination that was standard at the time of this exam (2013). - The numbers indicate the number of vaccine doses administered at different sites: **2 doses on day 0** (bilateral deltoids), **0 doses on day 3**, **2 doses on day 7** (bilateral deltoids), **0 doses on day 14**, **1 dose on day 28**, and **1 dose on day 90**. - This was the **answer expected for NEET 2013** based on the guidelines prevalent at that time. - **Note:** Current WHO guidelines (post-2013) recommend the updated 2-2-2-0-1-1 schedule (4-site ID regimen) which includes doses on days 0, 3, 7, and 28. *2-2-0-1-0-1* - This schedule is **not a recognized** intradermal rabies vaccination protocol. - Does not match any standard WHO-approved regimen for intradermal administration. *2-2-2-0-1-1* - While this may appear incorrect for the 2013 exam context, this schedule actually represents the **current updated Thai Red Cross (4-site ID) regimen** recommended by WHO in recent guidelines. - This regimen provides doses on **days 0, 3, 7, 28, and 90**, which is now the preferred intradermal schedule. - However, for the NEET 2013 exam, the older 2-0-2-0-1-1 schedule was the expected answer. *8-4-4-1-0-1* - This schedule is **not a standard regimen** and involves an impractically high number of doses. - No recognized intradermal rabies protocol uses this many doses on initial days. - Would be **unnecessary and impractical** for effective post-exposure prophylaxis.

Q: What is the annual infection rate of tuberculosis?

Percentage of new patients positive for tuberculin test. ***Percentage of new patients positive for tuberculin test*** - The **annual infection rate of tuberculosis (AIRT)** is defined as the percentage of individuals (typically children aged 1-9 years) who show **tuberculin conversion** (from negative to positive) in a given year. - Among the given options, this is the **closest representation** as it focuses on **newly infected individuals** rather than prevalent cases. - AIRT is a key epidemiological indicator reflecting **ongoing transmission** and the **annual risk of tuberculous infection** in a community. - This measure helps assess TB control program effectiveness and disease burden. *Percentage of total patients positive for tuberculin test* - This represents the **prevalence of tuberculosis infection** in the population, including both old and new infections. - It does not specifically measure the **annual rate of acquiring new infections**, which is what AIRT captures. *Percentage of sputum positive total patients* - This indicates the **prevalence of active, infectious pulmonary tuberculosis** in a population. - It refers to individuals with **active TB disease** who are shedding bacteria in sputum, not latent infection detected by tuberculin testing. *Percentage of sputum positive new patients* - This represents the **incidence of new, active, infectious tuberculosis cases** (case detection rate). - While important for TB surveillance, it measures **active disease** rather than **infection rate** detected by tuberculin skin test.

Q: Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)?

Distal renal tubular acidosis. ***Distal renal tubular acidosis*** - While dRTA is associated with various systemic abnormalities like **nephrolithiasis** and **osteomalacia**, **sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)** is **not a typical feature** of this condition. - The primary defect in dRTA is impaired acid secretion in the distal tubules, leading to **metabolic acidosis**. *Bartter syndrome* - This is a rare genetic disorder affecting the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to **salt wasting** and **hypokalemia**. - **SNHL** has been reported in certain variants of Bartter syndrome, particularly in those with mutations affecting the **NKCC2 transporter** or other associated genes. *Alport syndrome* - A well-known genetic disorder characterized by **glomerulonephritis**, **SNHL**, and ocular abnormalities. - The SNHL in Alport syndrome is typically **bilateral and progressive**, often beginning in childhood. *Nail-patella syndrome* - This is an autosomal dominant disorder primarily affecting the **nails**, **kneecaps**, elbows, and kidneys, with about 30-50% of affected individuals developing **renal disease**. - **SNHL** is a recognized, albeit less common, manifestation of Nail-patella syndrome, thought to be related to abnormalities in the **collagen IV** network in the cochlea.

Q: Lithium directly affects which ion ?

Sodium. ***Sodium*** - Lithium directly interferes with **sodium ion transport** across cell membranes, particularly by inhibiting the **Na+/K+-ATPase** pump. - This interference alters intracellular sodium concentrations and affects neural excitability, contributing to its **mood-stabilizing** effects. *Potassium* - While potassium transport is linked to the **Na+/K+-ATPase pump**, lithium primarily acts through its effect on **sodium transport**, rather than directly mimicking or significantly altering potassium. - Changes in potassium levels due to lithium are largely secondary to its primary impact on sodium. *Magnesium* - Lithium has a more direct impact on **sodium channels** and transporters, contrasting with its less direct or significant interaction with magnesium metabolism. - Though magnesium is crucial for numerous cellular processes, it is not the primary ion directly affected by lithium's therapeutic actions. *Calcium* - Lithium does not directly affect **calcium channels** or calcium signaling pathways in the same way it impacts sodium. - While lithium may indirectly influence calcium-dependent processes, its primary direct target for therapeutic effects is not calcium.

Q: Which of the following is a parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor?

Argatroban. ***Argatroban*** - **Argatroban** is a **synthetic direct thrombin inhibitor** administered exclusively via **intravenous infusion**, making it a parenteral drug. - It does not require antithrombin for its action and is primarily used in patients with **heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)**. *Ximelagatran* - **Ximelagatran** was an **oral direct thrombin inhibitor** but was withdrawn from the market due to concerns about severe **liver toxicity**. - As an oral drug, it is not a parenteral medication. *Dabigatran* - **Dabigatran** is a **direct thrombin inhibitor** that is administered **orally** in capsule form (as dabigatran etexilate, a prodrug). - Therefore, it is not a parenteral medication. *Heparin* - **Heparin** is an **indirect thrombin inhibitor** because it requires binding to **antithrombin** to exert its anticoagulant effect. - Although administered parenterally, its mechanism of action is indirect.

Q: Which of the following is a renin inhibitor?

Remikiren. **Remikiren** - **Remikiren** is a direct **renin inhibitor** that acts by binding to the active site of renin, preventing its interaction with angiotensinogen. - This inhibition reduces the formation of **angiotensin I** and subsequently **angiotensin II**, leading to decreased blood pressure. *Losartan* - **Losartan** is an **Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB)**, meaning it blocks AT1 receptors, preventing angiotensin II from binding. - It does not inhibit renin activity directly but rather acts downstream in the **renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)**. *Benazepril* - **Benazepril** is an **Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor**, which blocks the enzyme responsible for converting **angiotensin I** to **angiotensin II**. - It does not directly inhibit renin production or activity. *Imidapril* - **Imidapril** is also an **Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor**, similar to benazepril. - Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting ACE, thereby reducing **angiotensin II** levels, rather than directly inhibiting renin.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of amoxicillin over ampicillin?

Spectrum includes H. influenzae & Shigella. ***Spectrum includes H. influenzae & Shigella*** - Amoxicillin and ampicillin both have a similar spectrum of activity against *Haemophilus influenzae* and *Shigella* species. Neither drug possesses a distinct advantage over the other in this regard for these specific pathogens. - Therefore, stating that amoxicillin's spectrum *includes* these bacteria as an advantage over ampicillin implies a unique characteristic, which is incorrect. *Better bioavailability & faster action* - **Amoxicillin** has superior oral **bioavailability** compared to ampicillin, leading to higher and more consistent blood levels. - This improved absorption often translates to a **faster onset of action** and allows for less frequent dosing. *Incidence of diarrhea is lower* - **Amoxicillin** is associated with a **lower incidence of diarrhea** and other gastrointestinal side effects compared to ampicillin. - This is partly due to its better absorption, meaning less unabsorbed drug reaches the colon to disrupt normal flora. *Food does not interfere with its absorption* - The absorption of **amoxicillin is largely unaffected by food**, allowing it to be taken without regard to meals. - In contrast, ampicillin's absorption can be significantly reduced when taken with food, making amoxicillin more convenient.

Question 1

In typhoid, a person is considered a permanent carrier if they excrete bacilli for more than how many months?

Accepted Answer

1 year

Answer

3 months

Answer

6 months

Answer

3 years

Question 2

Which of the following best defines the concept of 'Quality of Life'?

Accepted Answer

Subjective feeling of well being

Answer

Standard of living

Answer

Level of living

Answer

None of the above

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for defining a polio epidemic?

Accepted Answer

Cases occurring during a 6 month period

Answer

Caused by same virus type

Answer

Cases should occur in same locality

Answer

2 or more cases

Question 4

What is the schedule of intradermal rabies vaccine?

Accepted Answer

2-0-2-0-1-1

Answer

2-2-0-1-0-1

Answer

8-4-4-1-0-1

Answer

2-2-2-0-1-1

Question 5

What is the annual infection rate of tuberculosis?

Accepted Answer

Percentage of new patients positive for tuberculin test

Answer

Percentage of total patients positive for tuberculin test

Answer

Percentage of sputum positive total patients

Answer

Percentage of sputum positive new patients

Question 6

Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)?

Accepted Answer

Distal renal tubular acidosis

Answer

Bartter syndrome

Answer

Alport syndrome

Answer

Nail-patella syndrome

Question 7

Lithium directly affects which ion ?

Accepted Answer

Sodium

Answer

Potassium

Answer

Magnesium

Answer

Calcium

Question 8

Which of the following is a parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor?

Accepted Answer

Argatroban

Answer

Ximelagatran

Answer

Dabigatran

Answer

Heparin

Question 9

Which of the following is a renin inhibitor?

Accepted Answer

Remikiren

Answer

Losartan

Answer

Benazepril

Answer

Imidapril

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of amoxicillin over ampicillin?

Accepted Answer

Spectrum includes H. influenzae & Shigella

Answer

Incidence of diarrhea is lower

Answer

Food does not interfere with its absorption

Answer

Better bioavailability & faster action

NEET-PG 2013

Community Medicine

ENT

Pharmacology