NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which is the earliest secondary ossification center to develop chronologically?

Lower end of femur. ***Lower end of femur*** - The **distal femoral epiphysis** is typically the first secondary ossification center to appear, often present at birth or shortly before [1]. - Its presence at birth is an indicator of **fetal maturity**, making it a key developmental landmark [1]. *Upper end of humerus* - The **proximal humeral epiphysis** typically ossifies around 6 months of age, significantly later than the distal femur. - This center contributes to the growth of the humeral head and greater tubercle. *Lower end of fibula* - The **distal fibular epiphysis** appears around the first year of life, after both the distal femur and proximal humerus. - It forms part of the ankle joint and contributes to its stability. *Upper end of tibia* - The **proximal tibial epiphysis** typically ossifies around 6-12 months of age, well after the distal femur. - This center is crucial for the growth of the upper tibia and knee joint development.

Q: Which of the following is classified as a third generation Intrauterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD)?

Mirena. ***Mirena*** - Mirena (levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system) is a **third-generation IUCD** that releases **progestin**, offering both contraceptive and therapeutic benefits. - Its mechanism of action involves **thickening cervical mucus**, thinning the uterine lining, and inhibiting sperm motility/viability. *Nova-T* - Nova-T is a **second-generation IUCD** that uses **copper** as its active contraceptive agent. - Copper IUCDs like Nova-T primarily work by causing a **sterile inflammatory reaction** in the uterus, making it spermicidal. *Lippe's loop* - Lippe's loop is a **first-generation IUCD** made of inert plastic, designed to **physically block** fertilization. - It is no longer widely used due to higher rates of expulsion and complications compared to newer generations. *CuT-200* - CuT-200 is a **second-generation IUCD** that releases **copper** to prevent pregnancy. - It works by producing a **local inflammatory response** in the uterus that is toxic to sperm and eggs.

Q: Which grain has the highest calcium content?

Finger millet. ***Finger millet*** - **Finger millet**, also known as **Ragi**, is exceptionally rich in **calcium**, containing significantly more than other common grains. - It is a valuable dietary source for **bone health** and preventing **calcium deficiencies**. *Jowar* - **Jowar** (sorghum) is a good source of various nutrients but has a **lower calcium content** compared to finger millet. - It is known more for its **fiber** and iron content. *Bajara* - **Bajara** (pearl millet) provides a moderate amount of **calcium** but is surpassed by finger millet. - It is favored for its **energy content** and beneficial fatty acids. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **finger millet** indeed has a remarkably high calcium content, making it a clear answer. - The other grains mentioned, while nutritious, do not match finger millet's calcium profile.

Q: What does Gettler's test detect?

Chloride content of blood in drowning. ***Chloride content of blood in drowning*** - Gettler's test is a classical forensic test used to determine whether a death occurred by **drowning** in fresh or saltwater. - It specifically measures the **difference in chloride concentrations** between the left and right sides of the heart; the principle being that water entering the lungs during drowning will alter electrolyte balance, especially chloride, in the blood of the left ventricle relative to the right. *Diatoms in drowning* - The presence of **diatoms** (microscopic algae) in tissues and organs is another indicator of drowning, but it is detected through specific microscopic examination and not Gettler's test. - Diatom testing aims to prove that the deceased was alive and breathing in the water, allowing the inhalation of diatoms into the systemic circulation. *Weight in drowning* - **Weight** measurements are not directly related to Gettler's test or used as a primary diagnostic tool for drowning itself. - While fluid absorption may slightly increase body weight, it's not a reliable or specific indicator. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because Gettler's test specifically targets the **chloride content of blood** in potential drowning cases. - The test leverages the physiological changes in electrolyte distribution that occur when a person aspirates water.

Q: What does testamentary capacity refer to?

Ability to make a valid will. ***Ability to make a valid will*** - **Testamentary capacity** specifically refers to the legal and mental competence required to create a legally binding **last will and testament**. - It ensures that the testator understands the nature of the act, the extent of their property, and the natural objects of their bounty (i.e., those who would reasonably expect to inherit). *Ability to create a will* - While related, this option is too broad; it doesn't emphasize the **legal validity** or the specific cognitive requirements involved in the process. - Simply "creating" a will may involve just writing it down, but it doesn't guarantee the **mental capacity** needed for it to be enforceable. *Ability to understand legal documents* - This is a general cognitive ability that is necessary but insufficient to define **testamentary capacity**. - A person might understand legal documents generally but lack the specific awareness of their assets or beneficiaries required for a valid will at a given time. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because the first option accurately describes **testamentary capacity**.

Q: Darting motility which occurs in V.cholerae, also found in -

Campylobacter jejuni. ***Campylobacter jejuni*** - *Campylobacter jejuni* is well-known for its **rapid, corkscrew-like motility**, often described as **darting motility**, which is a key characteristic for its identification. - This characteristic movement is due to its **polar flagella** and helps the bacterium penetrate the intestinal mucosa. *Shigella* - *Shigella* species are notable for being **non-motile**, a crucial feature distinguishing them from other enterobacteriaceae. - Their lack of flagella and motility prevents them from exhibiting darting or any other form of self-propulsion. *Bacillus anthracis* - *Bacillus anthracis* is typically described as **non-motile** in its vegetative form. - While other *Bacillus* species can be motile, *B. anthracis* lacks the flagella necessary for darting motility. *Pneumococcus* - *Pneumococcus* (Streptococcus pneumoniae) is a **non-motile** bacterium. - It does not possess flagella and therefore cannot exhibit darting or any other type of active movement.

Q: Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by Aspergillus?

Dermatophytosis. ***Dermatophytosis*** - This condition is caused by **dermatophytes** (e.g., *Trichophyton*, *Microsporum*, *Epidermophyton*), which are a specific group of fungi that metabolize keratin. - *Aspergillus* species are generally **opportunistic molds** but do not typically cause dermatophytosis, which is a superficial fungal infection of the skin, hair, or nails. *Otomycosis* - **Otomycosis** is a fungal infection of the external ear canal, and *Aspergillus* species are a common cause, particularly *Aspergillus niger*. - It can lead to ear pain, discharge, itching, and hearing impairment. *Allergic sinusitis* - **Allergic fungal sinusitis (AFS)** is a common form of fungal sinusitis where *Aspergillus* species are significant contributors, often leading to a thick, tenacious allergic mucin. - This condition is an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction to the fungal elements in the nasal and sinus cavities. *Bronchopulmonary allergy* - **Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)** is a hypersensitivity reaction to *Aspergillus fumigatus* antigens that colonize the airways, particularly in individuals with asthma or cystic fibrosis. - It results in recurrent episodes of wheezing, cough, and transient pulmonary infiltrates, and can lead to bronchiectasis if left untreated.

Q: Cylindrical helminths are -

Roundworms. ***Roundworms*** - **Roundworms**, also known as **nematodes**, are characterized by their **cylindrical body shape**. - Their unsegmented, tapered bodies distinguish them from flatworms like tapeworms and flukes. *Tapeworms* - **Tapeworms**, or **cestodes**, have **flat, ribbon-like bodies** segmented into proglottids. - They are not cylindrical but rather dorsoventrally flattened. *Flukes* - **Flukes**, or **trematodes**, have **flat, leaf-shaped bodies**, which are not cylindrical. - Their morphology includes suckers for attachment and they are not segmented. *Hookworms* - **Hookworms** are a type of **roundworm** (nematode), which means they are cylindrical. However, "Roundworms" is a broader and more accurate classification for the general term "cylindrical helminths." - While hookworms are indeed cylindrical, the option "Roundworms" encompasses all such cylindrical helminths, making it a more general and appropriate answer.

Q: Which of the following statements about malaria transmission is correct?

Individuals harboring gametocytes can transmit malaria.. ***Individuals harboring gametocytes can transmit malaria.*** - **Gametocytes** are the sexual stage of the malaria parasite that circulate in the human bloodstream and are infectious to mosquitos. - When an *Anopheles* mosquito feeds on an infected human, it ingests these gametocytes, allowing the parasite's life cycle to continue in the mosquito vector, leading to transmission. *P. vivax always completely fills the infected RBC with schizonts.* - While *P. vivax* does infect **reticulocytes** (young RBCs) and can enlarge them, the **schizonts** typically occupy a significant portion but not always completely fill the host cell. - The infected RBCs are often enlarged to about 1.5 to 2 times their normal size and contain numerous **Schüffner's dots**. *Malaria can only be transmitted through blood transfusions.* - The primary mode of malaria transmission is through the bite of an **infected female *Anopheles* mosquito**. - While **blood transfusions** can transmit malaria, it is a less common and secondary route compared to vector-borne transmission. *All stages of P. falciparum are commonly seen in peripheral blood smears.* - In *P. falciparum* infections, only the **ring forms** and **gametocytes** are commonly observed in the peripheral blood smear. - The more mature asexual stages (trophozoites and schizonts) typically sequester in the capillaries of internal organs, where they are not readily visible in peripheral circulation.

Q: What is a potential risk associated with the use of thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes?

Heart failure. ***Heart failure*** - Thiazolidinediones (TZDs), such as **pioglitazone** and **rosiglitazone**, can cause **fluid retention** and **volume expansion**, which may precipitate or worsen congestive heart failure. - This risk is higher in patients with pre-existing cardiac conditions and is a significant concern for these drugs. *Pulmonary fibrosis* - **Pulmonary fibrosis** is not a known or common adverse effect associated with thiazolidinedione use. - This condition is typically linked to certain other medications (e.g., **amiodarone**, **methotrexate**) or systemic diseases. *Myocarditis* - **Myocarditis**, inflammation of the heart muscle, is not a recognized side effect of thiazolidinediones. - Myocarditis is more commonly caused by viral infections, autoimmune diseases, or hypersensitivity reactions to certain drugs, but not TZDs. *Renal dysfunction* - While TZDs can cause fluid retention, they do not directly cause **renal dysfunction** or damage the kidneys. - In fact, some studies suggest they may have renoprotective effects due to reduced proteinuria, although fluid balance needs careful monitoring in patients with impaired renal function.

Question 1

Which is the earliest secondary ossification center to develop chronologically?

Accepted Answer

Lower end of femur

Answer

Upper end of humerus

Answer

Lower end of fibula

Answer

Upper end of tibia

Question 2

Which of the following is classified as a third generation Intrauterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD)?

Accepted Answer

Mirena

Answer

Nova-T

Answer

Lippe's loop

Answer

CuT-200

Question 3

Which grain has the highest calcium content?

Accepted Answer

Finger millet

Answer

Jowar

Answer

Bajara

Answer

None of the options

Question 4

What does Gettler's test detect?

Accepted Answer

Chloride content of blood in drowning

Answer

Diatoms in drowning

Answer

Weight in drowning

Answer

None of the options

Question 5

What does testamentary capacity refer to?

Accepted Answer

Ability to make a valid will

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Ability to create a will

Answer

Ability to understand legal documents

Question 6

Darting motility which occurs in V.cholerae, also found in -

Accepted Answer

Campylobacter jejuni

Answer

Bacillus anthracis

Answer

Shigella

Answer

Pneumococcus

Question 7

Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by Aspergillus?

Accepted Answer

Dermatophytosis

Answer

Otomycosis

Answer

Allergic sinusitis

Answer

Bronchopulmonary allergy

Question 8

Cylindrical helminths are -

Accepted Answer

Roundworms

Answer

Tapeworms

Answer

Flukes

Answer

Hookworms

Question 9

Which of the following statements about malaria transmission is correct?

Accepted Answer

Individuals harboring gametocytes can transmit malaria.

Answer

P. vivax always completely fills the infected RBC with schizonts.

Answer

Malaria can only be transmitted through blood transfusions.

Answer

All stages of P. falciparum are commonly seen in peripheral blood smears.

Question 10

What is a potential risk associated with the use of thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes?

Accepted Answer

Heart failure

Answer

Pulmonary fibrosis

Answer

Myocarditis

Answer

Renal dysfunction

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Forensic Medicine

Microbiology

Pharmacology