NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: T cells in lymph node are present in:

Paracortical area. ***Paracortical area*** - The **paracortical area** contains a high concentration of **T cells**, particularly activated T cells in response to antigenic stimulation [1]. - It plays a crucial role in **immune responses**, bridging the cortex and medulla of the lymph node [1]. *Mantle layer* - The **mantle layer** surrounds the follicles and primarily consists of **B cells**, not T cells. - It is involved in the initial immune response but does not contain a significant number of T lymphocytes. *Medullary cords* - **Medullary cords** mainly contain **plasma cells** and macrophages, with very few T cells present. - Their primary function is the secretion of antibodies rather than T cell activation or response. *Cortical follicles* - **Cortical follicles** are primarily sites for **B cell activation and proliferation**. - While they may have some T cells at their periphery, the majority of T cells are located in the paracortical area.

Q: Which of the following is the nodal centre for disaster management at the district level in India?

District Collector's office. ***District Collector's office*** - The **District Collector (Deputy Commissioner/District Magistrate)** is the **chairperson of the District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA)** as per the Disaster Management Act, 2005. - The District Collector's office serves as the **nodal centre for all disaster management activities** at the district level, with overall administrative and operational responsibility. - The District Collector coordinates all disaster preparedness, response, relief, and rehabilitation activities in the district. *Emergency Operations Center (EOC)* - The **EOC** is a **functional/operational unit** that assists in disaster coordination and information management. - It serves as a support mechanism for the District Collector but is **not the nodal agency itself**. - The EOC operates under the administrative framework of the District Disaster Management Authority. *PHC* - A **Primary Health Centre (PHC)** is the first point of contact for healthcare in rural areas. - Its role in disasters is limited to providing initial medical aid and supporting community health needs. - It is not an administrative or coordinating body for overall disaster management. *CHC* - A **Community Health Centre (CHC)** provides secondary healthcare services and acts as a referral center for PHCs. - While important for medical response during disasters, it has no administrative role in disaster management coordination.

Q: Immersion syndrome is also known as?

Hydrocution. ***Hydrocution*** - **Immersion syndrome**, or hydrocution, is a sudden death that occurs immediately upon immersion in cold water. - It is believed to be caused by a **vasovagal reflex** triggered by the sudden temperature change, leading to cardiac arrest. *Wet drowning* - This term refers to conventional drowning where an individual inhales water, leading to respiratory compromise and death. - It is characterized by the presence of **fluid in the lungs**, which is not the primary mechanism in immersion syndrome. *Dry drowning* - **Dry drowning** occurs when water does not enter the lungs; instead, the glottis spasms and closes, preventing air and water from entering. - This leads to suffocation, often hours after the initial water exposure, and is distinct from the immediate cardiac event of immersion syndrome. *Secondary drowning* - **Secondary drowning**, or delayed drowning, refers to complications that arise hours or days after a near-drowning incident due to inhaled water causing pulmonary edema. - It involves a delayed physiological response rather than an immediate reflex.

Q: Who coined the term 'cafe coronary'?

Roger Haugen. ***Roger Haugen*** - Dr. Roger Haugen is widely credited with coining the term "**cafe coronary**" in 1966. - He described cases of sudden death during meals that mimicked myocardial infarction but were caused by **choking on food** [1]. *J. Morton* - While J. Morton was a physician and made contributions to medical literature, he is **not associated** with coining the term "cafe coronary." - His work focused on other areas of medicine, not specifically on choking incidents. *Neil Markson* - Neil Markson is **not recognized** in medical history for coining the term "cafe coronary." - This name does not commonly appear in the context of the history of this medical term. *M. Hoppefield* - M. Hoppefield is **not attributed** to coining the term "cafe coronary." - There is no historical information linking this individual to the origin of this specific medical phrase.

Q: In blast injury, which organ is most likely to be damaged first?

Tympanic membrane. ***Tympanic membrane*** - The **tympanic membrane** is the most sensitive organ to the pressure waves generated by a blast, often rupturing even with relatively low blast overpressures. - Its thin, delicate structure and direct exposure to external air pressure make it highly vulnerable to barotrauma. *Gastrointestinal tract* - While the **gastrointestinal tract** can be damaged by blast waves, especially air-filled organs, this typically occurs after the tympanic membrane is affected. - Damage often includes hemorrhage, perforation, and mesenteric injury. *Liver* - The **liver** is a solid organ and is less susceptible to initial blast injury compared to air-filled structures. - Damage to the liver usually results from secondary mechanisms like blunt trauma from displacement or impact against other structures. *Lung* - **Blast lung** is a serious injury characterized by pulmonary contusions, hemorrhage, and edema, but it generally requires higher blast overpressure than tympanic membrane rupture. - The air-filled nature of the lungs makes them susceptible, but the tympanic membrane almost always fails first.

Q: ABO isoantibodies are of which class?

IgM. ***IgM*** - Naturally occurring **ABO isoantibodies** are predominantly of the **IgM class**. - These **pentameric antibodies** are highly effective at causing **agglutination** of incompatible red blood cells, which is crucial in transfusion reactions [1]. *IgG* - While IgG antibodies can be formed against ABO antigens (e.g., in hemolytic disease of the newborn), the **naturally occurring isoantibodies** are primarily IgM. - IgG antibodies are **monomeric** and can cross the **placenta**, which is a key difference from the primary IgM ABO antibodies. *IgD* - **IgD** antibodies are primarily found on the surface of **B cells** and play a role in B cell activation. - They are **not a primary mediator** of ABO isoantibody response or red blood cell agglutination. *IgA* - **IgA** antibodies are predominantly found in **mucosal secretions** and play a role in mucosal immunity. - While some IgA may be present, it is **not the predominant class** for naturally occurring ABO isoantibodies involved in transfusion reactions. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 154-155.

Q: What is the most serious side effect associated with Raltegravir?

Rhabdomyolysis. ***Rhabdomyolysis*** - Raltegravir, an **integrase strand transfer inhibitor (INSTI)**, can cause muscle-related side effects, including **rhabdomyolysis** and **myopathy**. [2] - Patients may present with muscle pain, weakness, and elevated **creatine kinase (CK)** levels. *Headache* - While headache can be a general side effect of many medications, it is not a **distinguishing or severe adverse effect commonly associated with Raltegravir** that would require specific monitoring. - Other more prominent side effects are typically prioritized in counseling and monitoring for this drug. *Hyperglycemia* - **Hyperglycemia** is not a commonly reported or significant side effect of Raltegravir. - While some antiretrovirals, particularly certain **protease inhibitors (PIs)** and **nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)**, are associated with altered glucose metabolism, INSTIs like Raltegravir generally have a more favorable metabolic profile. [1] *Hypertension* - Hypertension is generally **not a recognized or common side effect** of Raltegravir. - Cardiovascular events and hypertension are more frequently associated with other classes of antiretroviral drugs or as comorbidities in HIV-positive patients, rather than directly with INSTIs.

Q: What serious side effect may lead to the discontinuation of felbamate?

Aplastic anemia. ***Aplastic anemia*** - Felbamate is known to cause **aplastic anemia**, a severe and life-threatening condition where the **bone marrow stops producing enough new blood cells**. - Felbamate carries a **black box warning** for both aplastic anemia and **hepatotoxicity (severe liver failure)**, which are the two most serious adverse effects leading to discontinuation. - Due to this significant risk, felbamate is reserved for severe, refractory epilepsy cases, and patients require **regular monitoring** of blood counts and liver function tests. *Renal impairment* - While some medications can cause renal impairment, **felbamate is not primarily associated** with this side effect to the extent of requiring discontinuation. - Its metabolism and excretion are predominantly **hepatic (liver)**, and renal effects are less common or severe. *Gastrointestinal disorder* - Gastrointestinal side effects like nausea or vomiting are **common with many medications**, including felbamate, but are generally **mild and manageable**, rarely leading to discontinuation. - These effects are usually **dose-dependent** and can often be mitigated with supportive care. *Seizures* - Felbamate is an **antiepileptic drug (AED)**, so it is used to treat seizures, not cause them. - If a patient experiences seizures while on felbamate, it usually indicates **inadequate treatment response** or seizure exacerbation, rather than a direct side effect necessitating discontinuation for toxicity.

Q: Mode of excretion of cyclophosphamide is?

Kidney. ***Kidney*** - Cyclophosphamide is a **prodrug** that undergoes metabolism in the liver to its active forms. However, both the parent drug and its active metabolites are primarily **excreted renally**. [1] - Renal excretion means that patients with **renal impairment** may require dose adjustments to prevent drug accumulation and increased toxicity. [3] *Lung* - The lungs are primarily involved in **gas exchange** and the elimination of volatile substances, not non-volatile drugs like cyclophosphamide. - While some drugs can be excreted to a minor extent via the lungs, it is not the primary route for **cyclophosphamide**. *Liver* - The liver is the primary site of **metabolism** for cyclophosphamide, where it is converted into active cytotoxic metabolites. [1], [2] - While metabolites are formed here, the liver is not the main organ for the final **elimination** (excretion) of the drug or its metabolites from the body. *Skin* - The skin's role in drug excretion is generally minimal, mainly involving substances excreted in **sweat**, and is not a significant route for cyclophosphamide. - Excretion via the skin is typically very limited for most drugs and does not play a major role in the elimination of **chemotherapeutic agents** like cyclophosphamide.

Q: Which of the following statements about lamotrigine is correct?

Has a half-life of approximately 24 hours.. ***Has a half-life of approximately 24 hours.*** - Lamotrigine's **half-life** is typically around **24 to 33 hours** in adults, which allows for once or twice-daily dosing. - This relatively long half-life is advantageous for maintaining **stable plasma concentrations** and improving patient adherence. *Is the first choice for absence seizures.* - **Ethosuximide** or **valproate** are generally considered first-line treatments for **absence seizures**. - Lamotrigine is not the preferred initial therapy due to its **slower titration** and occasional lack of efficacy in this seizure type. *Is not significantly metabolized in the liver.* - Lamotrigine is **significantly metabolized** in the liver, primarily through **glucuronidation** by the **UGT1A4 enzyme**. - This hepatic metabolism explains many of its **drug interactions**, particularly with other antiepileptic drugs affecting UGT enzymes. *Has decreased efficacy in treating depressive episodes.* - Lamotrigine is known for its **mood-stabilizing properties** and is effective in treating and preventing **depressive episodes**, particularly in **bipolar disorder**. - Its efficacy in depression is a key distinguishing feature, making it a valuable option for patients with comorbid mood disorders.

Question 1

T cells in lymph node are present in:

Accepted Answer

Paracortical area

Answer

Mantle layer

Answer

Medullary cords

Answer

Cortical follicles

Question 2

Which of the following is the nodal centre for disaster management at the district level in India?

Accepted Answer

District Collector's office

Answer

PHC

Answer

Emergency Operations Center (EOC)

Answer

CHC

Question 3

Immersion syndrome is also known as?

Accepted Answer

Hydrocution

Answer

Wet drowning

Answer

Dry drowning

Answer

Secondary drowning

Question 4

Who coined the term 'cafe coronary'?

Accepted Answer

Roger Haugen

Answer

J. Morton

Answer

Neil Markson

Answer

M. Hoppefield

Question 5

In blast injury, which organ is most likely to be damaged first?

Accepted Answer

Tympanic membrane

Answer

Liver

Answer

Lung

Answer

Gastrointestinal tract

Question 6

ABO isoantibodies are of which class?

Accepted Answer

IgM

Answer

IgG

Answer

IgD

Answer

IgA

Question 7

What is the most serious side effect associated with Raltegravir?

Accepted Answer

Rhabdomyolysis

Answer

Hyperglycemia

Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Headache

Question 8

What serious side effect may lead to the discontinuation of felbamate?

Accepted Answer

Aplastic anemia

Answer

Seizures

Answer

Renal impairment

Answer

Gastrointestinal disorder

Question 9

Mode of excretion of cyclophosphamide is?

Accepted Answer

Kidney

Answer

Lung

Answer

Liver

Answer

Skin

Question 10

Which of the following statements about lamotrigine is correct?

Accepted Answer

Has a half-life of approximately 24 hours.

Answer

Is the first choice for absence seizures.

Answer

Is not significantly metabolized in the liver.

Answer

Has decreased efficacy in treating depressive episodes.

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Forensic Medicine

Pathology

Pharmacology