NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: What was the target reduction in child mortality rates set by the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) between 1990 and 2015?

Two-thirds. ***Two-thirds*** - The **Millennium Development Goal 4 (MDG 4)** specifically aimed to **reduce child mortality by two-thirds** among children under five years old between 1990 and 2015. - This target focused on improving maternal and child health outcomes globally. *Half* - Reducing child mortality by half was not the specific target set by MDG 4 for the 1990-2015 period. - While improvements were sought, the ambition was a more substantial reduction. *One-fourth* - A reduction of one-fourth would have been a significantly lower target than what was ultimately set and pursued by the MDGs. - The goals were designed to be ambitious yet achievable. *One-third* - Reducing child mortality by one-third falls short of the actual target established by the MDGs. - The international community aimed for a greater impact on child survival rates.

Q: An adolescent male developed vomiting and diarrhea 1 hour after having food from a restaurant. The most likely pathogen is?

Staphylococcus aureus. ***Staphylococcus aureus*** - The rapid onset of symptoms (within 1 hour) strongly suggests **pre-formed toxin ingestion**, which is characteristic of *Staphylococcus aureus* food poisoning. - While the typical incubation period is **1-6 hours** (average 2-4 hours), onset within 1 hour can occur with **high toxin loads** in contaminated food. - **Vomiting** is often the predominant symptom, occurring shortly after consuming contaminated food, which distinguishes it from other bacterial causes. *Clostridium perfringens* - Onset of symptoms caused by *Clostridium perfringens* is typically **8-16 hours** after ingestion, which is much longer than observed here. - It primarily causes **diarrhea and abdominal cramps** due to toxin production in the intestine, with minimal vomiting. *Vibrio parahaemolyticus* - Symptoms usually appear **4-96 hours** (average 12-24 hours) after consuming contaminated seafood, which is a longer incubation period than described. - It typically causes **watery diarrhea**, abdominal cramps, nausea, and occasional vomiting, but not within 1 hour. *Salmonella* - The incubation period for *Salmonella* infection is typically **6-72 hours** (average 12-36 hours), making it highly unlikely for symptoms to appear within 1 hour. - **Diarrhea, fever, and abdominal cramps** are common with *Salmonella*, but rapid-onset vomiting from pre-formed toxin is not its mechanism.

Q: Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant?

Endothelin. ***Endothelin*** - Endothelin is a **vasoconstrictive peptide** primarily involved in regulating **blood vessel tone** and blood pressure. - While it plays a role in processes like inflammation and tissue repair, it is not synthesized or regulated in the same rapid, systemic manner as a classic acute phase reactant. *C-reactive protein* - **C-reactive protein (CRP)** is a rapidly responding acute phase reactant produced by the liver in response to **inflammation**, infection, and tissue injury. - Its levels can rise dramatically within hours of an inflammatory stimulus and are used as a marker for disease activity. *Haptoglobin* - **Haptoglobin** is an acute phase reactant that binds to free **hemoglobin** released from red blood cells during hemolysis, preventing oxidative damage. - Its levels typically increase during acute inflammation or infection, although it can also decrease with severe hemolysis. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** is a critical acute phase protein involved in the **coagulation cascade** and wound healing. - Its concentration increases significantly during acute inflammation, contributing to the elevated **erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)**.

Q: 2 months old child having birth weight 2kg, with poor feeding, very sleepy and wheezing. The diagnosis is?

Very severe disease. ***Very severe disease*** - According to **WHO/IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness) classification** for young infants (0-2 months), the presence of **danger signs** automatically classifies the condition as "Very severe disease" - This infant presents with two critical danger signs: **poor feeding** and **lethargy (very sleepy)**, along with respiratory symptoms (wheezing) - In young infants, any danger sign (poor feeding, lethargic/unconscious, convulsions, severe chest indrawing, central cyanosis) requires immediate classification as "Very severe disease" and **urgent referral** to higher center - This is a specific diagnostic classification used in pediatric emergency protocols, not a general term *Severe respiratory infection* - While the child has respiratory symptoms (wheezing), this classification would only be appropriate if respiratory distress was present **without danger signs** - The presence of danger signs (poor feeding, lethargy) escalates the classification to "Very severe disease" in the WHO/IMNCI protocol - In young infants (0-2 months), the classification system prioritizes danger signs over organ-specific diagnoses *No evidence of pneumonia* - This is incorrect as the infant clearly presents with respiratory symptoms (wheezing) and systemic signs of illness - The presence of wheezing, poor feeding, and lethargy indicates serious illness requiring urgent evaluation and treatment - This option contradicts the clinical presentation *No diagnosis* - This is incorrect as the WHO/IMNCI classification provides a clear diagnostic framework - The presence of danger signs in a young infant mandates classification as "Very severe disease" - A working diagnosis is essential for guiding appropriate management and urgent referral

Q: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mild dehydration?

Normal BP. ***Normal BP*** - In **mild dehydration**, the body's compensatory mechanisms, such as increased heart rate and vasoconstriction, typically manage to maintain a **normal blood pressure**. [1] - A significant drop in **blood pressure** (hypotension) is usually indicative of **moderate to severe dehydration**, where these compensatory mechanisms begin to fail. [2] *Thirst* - **Thirst** is one of the **earliest and most reliable** indicators of dehydration, as the body signals a need for fluid intake. [3] - It arises in response to increased plasma osmolality and decreased blood volume, both occurring even in **mild dehydration**. [3] *Restlessness* - **Restlessness** can be an early sign of discomfort and altered mental status associated with **mild dehydration**, particularly in infants and young children. - As the body struggles to maintain fluid balance, individuals may experience irritability and general unease. *Dry tongue* - A **dry tongue** and **dry sticky mucous membranes** are common signs of mild to moderate dehydration. - This symptom results from reduced salivary production due to decreased fluid volume in the body.

Q: Which of the following conditions is not treated by penicillin G?

Rickettsial infection. ***Rickettsial infection*** - **Rickettsial infections**, such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever or typhus, are caused by **obligate intracellular bacteria** that are not susceptible to penicillin G. - The primary treatment for rickettsial infections is **doxycycline**, due to its ability to penetrate host cells and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. *Bacterial meningitis* - **Bacterial meningitis**, particularly caused by susceptible strains of *Neisseria meningitidis*, *Streptococcus pneumoniae*, and *Haemophilus influenzae*, can be effectively treated with **high-dose intravenous penicillin G** [1]. - Penicillin G's ability to cross the **blood-brain barrier** in inflamed meninges makes it a suitable option, though ceftriaxone is now more commonly used empirically due to resistance concerns [2]. *Syphilis* - **Penicillin G** remains the **drug of choice** for all stages of syphilis, caused by *Treponema pallidum*. - For primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis, a **single intramuscular dose of benzathine penicillin G** is curative. *Anthrax* - While **ciprofloxacin** and **doxycycline** are often considered first-line for anthrax, **penicillin G** can also be an effective treatment for susceptible strains of *Bacillus anthracis*. - It is particularly used in cases of less severe cutaneous anthrax or to de-escalate treatment once susceptibility is confirmed.

Q: What is the initial loading dose of chloroquine base for treating uncomplicated malaria in children?

10 mg/kg (maximum 600 mg). ***10 mg/kg (maximum 600 mg)*** - The standard **initial loading dose** of chloroquine base for uncomplicated malaria in children is **10 mg/kg body weight**, with a maximum cap of **600 mg** to prevent toxicity. - This is followed by **5 mg/kg** at 6 hours, 24 hours, and 48 hours (total course of 25 mg/kg over 3 days). - This represents **WHO-recommended** weight-based dosing for pediatric malaria treatment. *5 mg/kg* - **5 mg/kg** is the dose for the **subsequent doses** (at 6, 24, and 48 hours after the initial dose), not the initial loading dose. - The initial dose must be higher (10 mg/kg) to rapidly achieve therapeutic blood levels. *15 mg/kg* - **15 mg/kg** exceeds the recommended initial dose and increases the risk of **chloroquine toxicity**. - Chloroquine has a narrow therapeutic index, and overdosing can cause serious **cardiovascular** (arrhythmias, hypotension) and **neurological** effects (seizures, visual disturbances). *25 mg/kg* - **25 mg/kg** represents the **total cumulative dose** over the entire 3-day treatment course, not the initial single dose. - Giving this amount as a single dose would result in severe toxicity and is contraindicated.

Q: Which anxiolytic acts through 5-HT1A receptor partial agonism without exhibiting significant anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant properties?

Buspirone. ***Buspirone*** - **Buspirone** is a unique anxiolytic that primarily acts as a **partial agonist at 5-HT1A receptors**. - Unlike benzodiazepines, it lacks significant **anticonvulsant**, **muscle relaxant**, or **sedative-hypnotic properties** and does not lead to physical dependence or withdrawal. *Diazepam* - **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** that acts by enhancing the effect of **GABA** at GABA-A receptors, leading to significant anxiolytic, sedative, muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant effects. - It does not primarily act via **5-HT1A receptor partial agonism**. *Zolpidem* - **Zolpidem** is a **non-benzodiazepine hypnotic** that selectively binds to the **GABA-A receptor** subunit, primarily mediating sedative effects. - While it's used for insomnia, it doesn't primarily act as a **5-HT1A partial agonist** and is not typically used for its anxiolytic properties in the same way as buspirone. *Phenobarbitone* - **Phenobarbitone** is a **barbiturate** that acts by prolonging the opening of **chloride channels** associated with GABA-A receptors, leading to strong sedative, hypnotic, and anticonvulsant effects. - Its mechanism of action is distinct from **5-HT1A receptor partial agonism**, and it carries a high risk of dependence and overdose.

Q: Which of the following is NOT typically produced by local anesthetics?

Dysphoria. Detailed Analysis: ***Dysphoria*** - While local anesthetics can cause a range of central nervous system effects with toxicity, **dysphoria** (a state of unease or generalized dissatisfaction with life) is not a typical or primary direct effect of their action on receptors. High doses or systemic absorption might lead to anxiety and restlessness, but dysphoria specifically is uncommon. - The primary mechanism of local anesthetics involves blocking **voltage-gated sodium channels** [1], leading to a reversible loss of sensation, not directly causing mood disturbances like dysphoria. *Euphoria* - **Euphoria** can sometimes be observed with systemic local anesthetic toxicity due to initial CNS stimulation before depression. Some individuals report a transient feeling of well-being or altered mental status with high systemic levels of certain local anesthetics. - This effect is not a direct therapeutic goal but rather an **adverse reaction** associated with systemic absorption and CNS excitation. *Analgesia* - **Analgesia** is the primary therapeutic effect of local anesthetics, achieved by blocking nerve impulse transmission. This prevents the sensation of pain from reaching the brain [1]. - They work by **blocking sodium channels** in nerve membranes [1], thereby inhibiting the initiation and propagation of action potentials [2]. *Muscle relaxation* - **Muscle relaxation** in the area of blockade is a direct consequence of the local anesthetic's action on the motor nerves supplying the muscles. - By blocking nerve conduction in **motor nerve fibers** [1], local anesthetics prevent muscle contraction, leading to temporary skeletal muscle paralysis.

Q: What does the acronym NSABP represent in the context of cancer research?

National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project. ***National surgical adjuvant for breast and bowel project*** - **NSABP** stands for **National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project**. - It is a prominent research organization focused on conducting clinical trials for the prevention and treatment of breast and colorectal cancer. *National surgical adjuvant for breast project* - This option is incomplete as it omits the "bowel" component of the organization's focus. - The NSABP's research scope extends beyond just breast cancer to include **colorectal cancer**. *National surgical adjuvant for brain and breast* - This option incorrectly includes "brain" and omits "bowel" from the acronym. - The NSABP's primary research areas are **breast and bowel (colorectal) cancers**, not brain cancer. *National surgical adjuvant for bowel and brain* - This option incorrectly includes "brain" and omits "breast" from the acronym. - The NSABP is known for its extensive work in both **breast and colorectal cancer research**.

Question 1

What was the target reduction in child mortality rates set by the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) between 1990 and 2015?

Accepted Answer

Two-thirds

Answer

Half

Answer

One-fourth

Answer

One-third

Question 2

An adolescent male developed vomiting and diarrhea 1 hour after having food from a restaurant. The most likely pathogen is?

Accepted Answer

Staphylococcus aureus

Answer

Clostridium perfringens

Answer

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Answer

Salmonella

Question 3

Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant?

Accepted Answer

Endothelin

Answer

C-reactive protein

Answer

Haptoglobin

Answer

Fibrinogen

Question 4

2 months old child having birth weight 2kg, with poor feeding, very sleepy and wheezing. The diagnosis is?

Accepted Answer

Very severe disease

Answer

No evidence of pneumonia

Answer

Severe respiratory infection

Answer

No diagnosis

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mild dehydration?

Accepted Answer

Normal BP

Answer

Thirst

Answer

Restlessness

Answer

Dry tongue

Question 6

Which of the following conditions is not treated by penicillin G?

Accepted Answer

Rickettsial infection

Answer

Bacterial meningitis

Answer

Syphilis

Answer

Anthrax

Question 7

What is the initial loading dose of chloroquine base for treating uncomplicated malaria in children?

Accepted Answer

10 mg/kg (maximum 600 mg)

Answer

5 mg/kg

Answer

15 mg/kg

Answer

25 mg/kg

Question 8

Which anxiolytic acts through 5-HT1A receptor partial agonism without exhibiting significant anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant properties?

Accepted Answer

Buspirone

Answer

Diazepam

Answer

Zolpidem

Answer

Phenobarbitone

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT typically produced by local anesthetics?

Accepted Answer

Dysphoria

Answer

Muscle relaxation

Answer

Euphoria

Answer

Analgesia

Question 10

What does the acronym NSABP represent in the context of cancer research?

Accepted Answer

National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project

Answer

National surgical adjuvant for brain and breast

Answer

National surgical adjuvant for bowel and brain

Answer

National surgical adjuvant for breast project

NEET-PG 2013

Community Medicine

Microbiology

Pathology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Surgery