NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: What is the BMI classification for an obese person?

≥30. ***≥30*** - A **Body Mass Index (BMI)** of **30 kg/m² or higher** is the standard WHO classification for **obesity**. - This classification indicates a significant accumulation of body fat that poses increased health risks including cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain cancers. *Less than 18.5* - A BMI in this range indicates that an individual is **underweight**, which also carries potential health risks associated with insufficient body mass. - This is the opposite end of the spectrum from obesity. *18.5-24.9* - This range represents a **healthy weight** or **normal BMI**, indicating a balanced proportion of weight to height. - Individuals in this category generally have the lowest health risks associated with body weight. *25-29.9* - A BMI within this range indicates **overweight**, which is a precursor to obesity if lifestyle changes are not made. - While not categorized as obese, it still carries increased health risks compared to a normal BMI.

Q: Dukoral is:

Oral cholera vaccine. ***Oral cholera vaccine*** - Dukoral is a **killed oral whole-cell vaccine** against *Vibrio cholerae* O1 and O139, often combined with a recombinant B subunit of cholera toxin. - It provides protection against **cholera**, an acute diarrheal illness caused by bacterial infection of the small intestine. *Oral rotavirus vaccine* - Oral rotavirus vaccines (e.g., Rotarix, RotaTeq) provide protection against **rotavirus**, the most common cause of severe diarrhea in infants and young children. - These vaccines are usually given in multiple doses to infants and are distinct from cholera vaccines. *Oral typhoid vaccine* - An oral typhoid vaccine, such as Ty21a, is used for the prevention of **typhoid fever**, caused by *Salmonella Typhi*. - It is a **live attenuated vaccine** administered in several doses over a week, differing significantly from Dukoral's mechanism and target. *Ready to use therapeutic food* - **Ready-to-use therapeutic food (RUTF)** is a high-energy, micronutrient-rich paste used for the treatment of **severe acute malnutrition (SAM)**, especially in children. - It is a nutritional intervention, not a vaccine, and helps in weight gain and recovery for malnourished individuals.

Q: Which of the following diseases is classified under category-B of bioterrorism?

Cholera. ***Cholera*** - **Cholera** is classified under **Category B** agents due to its moderate ease of dissemination, moderate morbidity rates, and low mortality rates. - While it can cause severe diarrheal disease, its treatment is relatively straightforward with **rehydration therapy**, and it poses a lower risk of mass casualties compared to Category A agents. *Anthrax* - **Anthrax** is a **Category A** bioterrorism agent, characterized by its high mortality rate, ease of dissemination, and potential for major public health impact. - It poses a significant threat due to its ability to form **spores** that are highly resistant and can cause severe lung infection. *Plague* - **Plague** is designated as a **Category A** agent because of its high potential for mass dissemination, high mortality if untreated, and potential to cause widespread panic. - It can be spread via **aerosols** and can lead to severe systemic illness. *Botulism* - **Botulism** is classified as a **Category A** agent due to the extreme potency of the **botulinum toxin**, even in minute quantities, which can cause severe flaccid paralysis and death. - It has a high potential for causing severe public health impact and requires complex medical interventions.

Q: Which of the following insects has shown the least widespread development of resistance to DDT?

Tsetse flies. ***Tsetse flies*** - **Tsetse flies** have shown the least widespread development of **resistance to DDT**, likely due to their specific life cycles and limited exposure in widespread application campaigns. - This has made DDT, or its successor compounds, remain effective in certain tsetse control programs where other insects have developed high resistance. *Mosquitoes* - **Mosquitoes** have developed **widespread resistance to DDT** globally, significantly impacting malaria control efforts. - Their rapid breeding cycles and extensive exposure to DDT over decades led to the selection and proliferation of resistant strains. *Fleas* - **Fleas** have also developed **significant resistance to DDT**, especially in regions where it was heavily used for pest control in homes and livestock. - This resistance is a major factor in the continued prevalence of flea-borne diseases in certain areas. *Ticks* - **Ticks** have shown considerable development of **resistance to DDT** and other acaricides due to widespread use in livestock and agricultural settings. - Their resistance has complicated efforts to control tick-borne diseases and protect animal health.

Q: Which gene of Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is most commonly associated with mutations causing antiviral drug resistance?

P gene. ***P gene*** - The **P gene** (polymerase gene) of HBV encodes the viral reverse transcriptase which is essential for viral replication. - Mutations in the P gene can lead to **antiviral drug resistance**, particularly to nucleos(t)ide analogues. *X gene* - The **X gene** encodes the X protein (HBx), a **transcriptional transactivator** involved in viral replication and pathogenesis. - While important for viral function, it is not the primary target for antiviral therapy, and mutations are less frequently associated with drug resistance. *S gene* - The **S gene** encodes the **surface antigens (HBsAg)**, which are crucial for viral entry and immune evasion. - Mutations in the S gene can lead to **vaccine escape mutants** or alter HBsAg detection, but not directly responsible for antiviral resistance. *C gene* - The **C gene** encodes the **core protein (HBcAg)** and the precore protein (HBeAg). - These proteins are involved in **viral particle assembly** and immune modulation, but mutations in this gene are not typically associated with resistance to antiviral drugs.

Q: Maximum maternal mortality during peripartum period occurs at -

Immediate post-partum. ***Immediate post-partum*** - The **immediate postpartum period** (first 24 hours after birth) is considered the most critical time for maternal mortality, accounting for approximately **45-50% of all maternal deaths**. - Primary causes include **postpartum hemorrhage** (leading cause, responsible for ~25% of maternal deaths globally), **eclampsia**, and **amniotic fluid embolism**. - This phase involves significant physiological changes and potential complications arising directly from the birthing process, with risks being highest in the first few hours after delivery. *Last trimester* - While the **last trimester** carries risks such as pre-eclampsia, gestational diabetes, and thrombosis, the overall mortality rate is lower compared to the immediate postpartum period. - Many of the complications arising in late pregnancy are either manageable with proper antenatal care or culminate in critical events during or just after delivery. *During labor* - **Maternal mortality during labor** can occur due to complications like obstructed labor, uterine rupture, or severe pre-eclampsia. However, modern obstetric care with active management aims to identify and manage these issues promptly. - Many *intrapartum* complications often lead to adverse outcomes that extend into the immediate postpartum phase, where the majority of deaths are recorded. *Delayed post-partum* - The **delayed postpartum period** (from 24 hours up to 6 weeks after birth) still carries risks such as infections (puerperal sepsis), venous thromboembolism, and peripartum cardiomyopathy, but the incidence of acute, life-threatening events is significantly lower than in the immediate postpartum period. - Mortalities during this period are often related to complications that develop or worsen over time, rather than acute events directly from birth.

Q: Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant?

Endothelin. ***Endothelin*** - Endothelin is a **vasoconstrictive peptide** primarily involved in regulating **blood vessel tone** and blood pressure. - While it plays a role in processes like inflammation and tissue repair, it is not synthesized or regulated in the same rapid, systemic manner as a classic acute phase reactant. *C-reactive protein* - **C-reactive protein (CRP)** is a rapidly responding acute phase reactant produced by the liver in response to **inflammation**, infection, and tissue injury. - Its levels can rise dramatically within hours of an inflammatory stimulus and are used as a marker for disease activity. *Haptoglobin* - **Haptoglobin** is an acute phase reactant that binds to free **hemoglobin** released from red blood cells during hemolysis, preventing oxidative damage. - Its levels typically increase during acute inflammation or infection, although it can also decrease with severe hemolysis. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** is a critical acute phase protein involved in the **coagulation cascade** and wound healing. - Its concentration increases significantly during acute inflammation, contributing to the elevated **erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)**.

Q: Which of the following antidiabetic drugs (other than insulin) is indicated as adjunct therapy for the management of both type I and type II diabetes mellitus?

Pramlintide. Pramlintide - Pramlintide is an amylin analog indicated as an adjunct therapy to insulin for both type 1 and type 2 diabetes, helping to regulate post-prandial glucose. - It slows gastric emptying, suppresses postprandial glucagon secretion, and promotes satiety, leading to reduced insulin requirements and improved glycemic control. Sulphonylureas - Sulphonylureas primarily stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells, making them effective only in Type 2 diabetes where some beta-cell function is preserved [2]. - They are not indicated for Type 1 diabetes because these patients have absolute insulin deficiency due to beta cell destruction. Metformin - Metformin is a biguanide that primarily reduces hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. - It is a first-line treatment for Type 2 diabetes but is generally not used for Type 1 diabetes as it does not address the fundamental lack of insulin. Acarbose - Acarbose is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that works by delaying carbohydrate absorption from the gastrointestinal tract, thus reducing postprandial glucose spikes [1]. - While it can be used in Type 2 diabetes to manage postprandial hyperglycemia, it is not typically indicated as an adjunct for Type 1 diabetes alongside insulin [3].

Q: What is the best drug for control of acute esophageal variceal bleeding?

Octreotide. ***Octreotide*** - **Octreotide** is a somatostatin analog that causes **splanchnic vasoconstriction**, reducing portal venous inflow and pressure, which is crucial in controlling **esophageal variceal bleeding**. - Its mechanism involves inhibiting the release of **vasodilatory hormones** like glucagon, leading to a decrease in portal pressure without significant systemic side effects. *Vasopressin* - **Vasopressin** is a potent vasoconstrictor that can reduce portal pressure but has significant systemic side effects such as **myocardial ischemia** and **bowel ischemia** due to widespread vasoconstriction. - It is generally no longer considered the first-line pharmacological treatment for variceal bleeding due to its **adverse effect profile**. *GnRH* - **GnRH** (Gonadotropin-releasing hormone) plays a role in regulating the reproductive system by controlling the release of FSH and LH from the pituitary. - It has **no direct role** in the management or control of esophageal bleeding. *Propranolol* - **Propranolol** is a non-selective beta-blocker primarily used for **prophylaxis** of variceal bleeding by reducing portal pressure chronically. - It works by reducing cardiac output and causing splanchnic vasoconstriction, but it is **not used for acute control** of active bleeding.

Q: Which levels of cervical lymph nodes are included in a modified radical neck dissection?

I-V. ***I-V*** - A modified radical neck dissection typically removes lymph nodes from levels **I through V**, along with preservation of one or more non-lymphatic structures (sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular vein, or spinal accessory nerve). - This extensive dissection addresses potential metastasis to these node groups from head and neck cancers, crucial for adequate oncologic clearance while aiming for functional preservation. *I-III* - This limited dissection would likely be insufficient for many head and neck cancers, as spread often extends beyond level III. - It would miss potential metastases in the lower jugular and posterior triangle nodes, increasing the risk of recurrence. *I-IV* - This dissection omits **level V**, which includes the posterior triangle nodes, a common site for metastatic spread, especially for cancers of the oropharynx, hypopharynx, and thyroid. - Excluding level V would be considered an incomplete radical or modified radical neck dissection in many clinical scenarios. *II-VI* - This option incorrectly excludes lymph nodes at **level I** (submental and submandibular nodes), which are critical draining sites for many oral cavity cancers. - Including level VI (anterior compartment nodes) is typically part of a central compartment neck dissection, often performed for thyroid cancer, but is usually not part of a standard modified radical neck dissection for other head and neck primaries unless specifically indicated.

Question 1

What is the BMI classification for an obese person?

Accepted Answer

≥30

Answer

Less than 18.5

Answer

18.5-24.9

Answer

25-29.9

Question 2

Dukoral is:

Accepted Answer

Oral cholera vaccine

Answer

Oral rotavirus vaccine

Answer

Oral typhoid vaccine

Answer

Ready to use therapeutic food

Question 3

Which of the following diseases is classified under category-B of bioterrorism?

Accepted Answer

Cholera

Answer

Anthrax

Answer

Plague

Answer

Botulism

Question 4

Which of the following insects has shown the least widespread development of resistance to DDT?

Accepted Answer

Tsetse flies

Answer

Mosquitoes

Answer

Fleas

Answer

Ticks

Question 5

Which gene of Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is most commonly associated with mutations causing antiviral drug resistance?

Accepted Answer

P gene

Answer

X gene

Answer

S gene

Answer

C gene

Question 6

Maximum maternal mortality during peripartum period occurs at -

Accepted Answer

Immediate post-partum

Answer

Last trimester

Answer

During labor

Answer

Delayed post-partum

Question 7

Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant?

Accepted Answer

Endothelin

Answer

C-reactive protein

Answer

Haptoglobin

Answer

Fibrinogen

Question 8

Which of the following antidiabetic drugs (other than insulin) is indicated as adjunct therapy for the management of both type I and type II diabetes mellitus?

Accepted Answer

Pramlintide

Answer

Sulphonylureas

Answer

Metformin

Answer

Acarbose

Question 9

What is the best drug for control of acute esophageal variceal bleeding?

Accepted Answer

Octreotide

Answer

Vasopressin

Answer

GnRH

Answer

Propranolol

Question 10

Which levels of cervical lymph nodes are included in a modified radical neck dissection?

Accepted Answer

I-V

Answer

I-IV

Answer

I-III

Answer

II-VI

NEET-PG 2013

Community Medicine

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Pharmacology

Surgery