NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: A person is not able to extend his metacarpophalangeal joint. Injury to which of the following nerve result in this?

Posterior Interosseous nerve injury. Posterior Interosseous Nerve (PIN) injury - The Posterior Interosseous Nerve is the deep motor branch of the radial nerve that specifically innervates the extensor muscles of the fingers and thumb - These muscles include: Extensor Digitorum, Extensor Indicis, Extensor Digiti Minimi, Extensor Pollicis Longus and Brevis [1] - PIN injury causes inability to extend the MCP joints and interphalangeal joints of the fingers [1] - Wrist extension is preserved because the Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus (ECRL) and often ECRB are innervated by the radial nerve proper before it gives off the PIN [1] - This results in a characteristic finger drop without wrist drop Radial nerve injury - A high radial nerve injury (proximal, above the elbow) would cause both wrist drop AND finger extension loss - However, radial nerve injury at the spiral groove (most common site) typically spares the PIN or affects it less severely - The question asks specifically about isolated inability to extend MCP joints, which is the hallmark of PIN injury, not general radial nerve injury - Radial nerve proper gives branches to triceps, brachioradialis, and ECRL before dividing into PIN and superficial branch Ulnar nerve injury - The ulnar nerve innervates intrinsic hand muscles (interossei, lumbricals to digits 4-5, hypothenar muscles, adductor pollicis) [1] - Ulnar nerve injury causes claw hand deformity with MCP hyperextension (not loss of extension) and IP joint flexion - This is the opposite of what is described in the question Median nerve injury - The median nerve innervates the thenar muscles, lateral two lumbricals, and forearm flexors [1] - Median nerve injury causes ape hand deformity with loss of thumb opposition and flexion - It does not affect MCP joint extension, which is an extensor function

Q: All are absolute indications of tonsillectomy except which of the following?

Chronic tonsillitis. ***Chronic tonsillitis*** - **Chronic tonsillitis** is a **relative indication** for tonsillectomy, not an **absolute indication**. - It becomes an indication based on frequency criteria (e.g., Paradise criteria: ≥7 episodes in 1 year, ≥5 episodes per year for 2 years, or ≥3 episodes per year for 3 years). - Absolute indications involve conditions requiring urgent surgical intervention. *Suspicious malignancy* - Suspected **malignancy** is an **absolute indication** for tonsillectomy to obtain tissue for histopathological diagnosis. - Early diagnosis and treatment of tonsillar malignancy is critical for patient outcomes. *Peritonsillar abscess* - **Peritonsillar abscess** (quinsy) is typically managed with needle aspiration or incision & drainage plus antibiotics, NOT immediate tonsillectomy. - Acute tonsillectomy during active infection ("hot tonsillectomy") is generally **contraindicated** due to increased bleeding risk and surgical complications. - **Recurrent peritonsillar abscess** may warrant **interval tonsillectomy** (4-6 weeks after resolution) as a **relative indication**, not an absolute one. *Tonsils causing obstructive sleep apnea* - **Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)** caused by tonsillar hypertrophy is an **absolute indication** for tonsillectomy, particularly in children. - Untreated OSA can lead to serious complications including failure to thrive, cor pulmonale, developmental delays, and neurocognitive problems.

Q: What are the key characteristics of Evans syndrome?

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenia. ***Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenia*** - **Evans syndrome** is defined by the simultaneous or sequential occurrence of **autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)** and **immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)** [1], [2]. - Both conditions involve the immune system mistakenly attacking and destroying **red blood cells** and **platelets**, respectively [1], [2]. *Low lymphocyte and red blood cell counts* - While **red blood cell counts** are low in Evans syndrome due to AIHA, **lymphocyte counts** are not a defining characteristic; they can vary. - This option does not fully capture the dual autoimmune destruction of red blood cells and platelets specific to Evans syndrome. *High platelet and lymphocyte counts* - **Platelet counts** are **low** in Evans syndrome due to ITP, not high. - **Lymphocyte counts** are not characteristically high; a high count might suggest other conditions like leukemias or lymphomas. *A reduction in all blood cell types* - A reduction in all (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) is known as **pancytopenia**, which is not the defining feature of Evans syndrome. - Evans syndrome specifically involves the destruction of **red blood cells** and **platelets**, but not necessarily all white blood cell types.

Q: Which of the following is not a recognized complication of chronic pancreatitis?

Renal artery thrombosis. ***Renal artery thrombosis*** - **Renal artery thrombosis** is generally associated with conditions like **atherosclerosis**, atrial fibrillation, or vasculitis, not directly with chronic pancreatitis. - While chronic pancreatitis can lead to systemic complications, direct renal arterial clotting is an atypical and **uncommon sequela**. *Pancreatic pseudocyst* - **Pancreatic pseudocysts** are common complications of chronic pancreatitis, occurring when fluid collections around the pancreas become walled off by fibrous tissue [1]. - They can cause pain, obstruction, and even rupture if left untreated [2]. *Splenic vein thrombosis* - **Splenic vein thrombosis** can result from inflammation and compression of the splenic vein by the diseased pancreatic tissue in chronic pancreatitis [1]. - This can lead to **splenomegaly** and **gastric varices** due to increased pressure in the portal system. *Pancreatic fistula* - A **pancreatic fistula** occurs when pancreatic fluid leaks from the gland, often forming a connection to another organ or the skin [2]. - This is a well-recognized complication of both acute and chronic pancreatitis, usually due to ductal disruption.

Q: From which surface is the Purkinje IV image formed?

Posterior surface of lens. ***Posterior surface of lens*** - The **Purkinje IV image** is formed by reflection from the **posterior surface of the lens**, which is the most curved surface in the eye. - Due to the higher curvature and refractive index difference, this surface acts as a concave mirror, producing an **inverted, virtual image**. *Anterior surface of cornea* - The **Purkinje I image** is formed from the **anterior surface of the cornea**, which is the primary reflective surface of the eye. - This image is **bright, erect, and virtual**, serving as a basic reference for eye position. *Posterior surface of cornea* - The **Purkinje II image** originates from the **posterior surface of the cornea**, a much less curved and reflective surface than the anterior. - This image is typically **fainter** and less frequently used in clinical assessments due to its reduced visibility. *Anterior surface of lens* - The **Purkinje III image** is generated by reflection from the **anterior surface of the lens**. - This image is **inverted and virtual**, and its movement relative to Purkinje I can indicate lens accommodation changes.

Q: What are the characteristic features of Posner-Schlossman syndrome?

Unilateral glaucomatous changes with mild anterior uveitis. ***Unilateral glaucomatous changes with mild anterior uveitis*** - Posner-Schlossman syndrome, also known as **glaucomatocyclitic crisis**, is characterized by recurrent, acute attacks of **unilateral elevated intraocular pressure** (glaucomatous changes). - These attacks are accompanied by **mild anterior uveitis**, which typically presents with few or no precipitates and minimal redness. *Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilloedema* - This constellation of symptoms, known as **Foster Kennedy syndrome**, is associated with intracranial masses, not Posner-Schlossman syndrome. - It involves **optic atrophy** in one eye due to direct pressure on the optic nerve and **papilledema** in the other eye due to increased intracranial pressure. *Granulomatous uveitis with iris heterochromia* - **Granulomatous uveitis** is characterized by large mutton-fat keratic precipitates and often seen in diseases like sarcoidosis or tuberculosis, which is not typical for Posner-Schlossman. - **Iris heterochromia** (different colored irises) is a characteristic feature of **Fuchs' heterochromic cyclitis**, another form of chronic anterior uveitis, but not Posner-Schlossman syndrome. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect as one of the provided choices accurately describes the characteristic features of Posner-Schlossman syndrome. - The other options describe different ophthalmological conditions.

Q: Forced duction test is to find out?

Mechanical restriction of eye movement. ***Mechanical restriction of eye movement*** - The forced duction test is specifically designed to **detect mechanical restriction** that prevents free passive movement of the globe. - Performed under **topical anesthesia**, the examiner grasps the eye at the limbus with forceps and attempts to passively rotate it in the direction of limited motility. - A **positive test** (resistance to passive movement) indicates mechanical restriction from causes like **thyroid-associated orbitopathy, orbital floor fracture, entrapment, or fibrosis**. - This is the **primary clinical indication** for performing the test - to differentiate restrictive from paretic causes of strabismus. *Ocular muscle palsy* - In muscle palsy (paretic strabismus), the forced duction test is **negative** - the eye moves freely with passive movement. - The test helps **differentiate paretic from restrictive causes** of limited motility, but the test itself detects restriction, not palsy. - Free passive movement confirms that the limitation is due to muscle weakness rather than mechanical factors. *Ocular muscle spasm* - Active muscle spasm would not be detected by this test because it is performed **under topical or general anesthesia**, which eliminates active muscle contraction. - The test assesses **passive mechanical restriction**, not active muscle activity or spasm. - Spasm would be a neurogenic rather than mechanical cause and would show free passive movement on testing. *Angle of deviation* - The forced duction test does not measure the **degree or angle of deviation** in strabismus. - Tests like the **prism cover test** or **Hirschberg test** are used to quantify deviation. - The forced duction test provides qualitative information about the cause of limitation, not quantitative measurement of misalignment.

Q: In which one of the following conditions is gas under the diaphragm typically seen?

Perforated duodenal ulcer. ***Perforated duodenal ulcer*** - A perforated duodenal ulcer creates a communication between the **lumen of the duodenum and the peritoneal cavity**, allowing air from the gastrointestinal tract to escape. - This free air, being lighter, rises and collects under the **diaphragm**, visible as **pneumoperitoneum** on an upright chest X-ray. - This is the **classic and most typical** presentation taught in medical education for gas under the diaphragm. - Occurs in approximately **70-75% of cases** of peptic ulcer perforation. *Typhoid perforation* - Typhoid perforation (typically affecting the **terminal ileum**) also causes pneumoperitoneum and can show gas under the diaphragm. - However, it is **less commonly encountered** in routine practice compared to peptic ulcer perforation in most settings. - The question asks for the **"typically seen"** condition, which refers to the classic teaching example: perforated duodenal ulcer. *After laparotomy* - It is normal to see a small amount of **residual intra-abdominal gas** for a few days to a week after a laparotomy, which can collect under the diaphragm. - However, this is a **post-surgical finding** and not a pathological condition leading to gas under the diaphragm in the same acute, diagnostic sense as a perforation. - Not the answer when considering pathological causes. *Spontaneous rupture of oesophagus* - Spontaneous oesophageal rupture (Boerhaave syndrome) leads to leakage of oesophageal contents into the **mediastinum or pleural cavity**, not the peritoneal cavity. - Presents with **mediastinal emphysema** (Hamman's sign) and pleural effusion rather than pneumoperitoneum. - **Subdiaphragmatic free air** indicative of pneumoperitoneum is not typically seen.

Q: Treatment for ileal obstruction due to roundworm infestation is

Enterotomy, removal of worms and primary closure. ***Enterotomy, removal of worms and primary closure*** - For **ileal obstruction** by **roundworms**, **surgical intervention** involves opening the affected bowel segment (**enterotomy**), carefully extracting the worm bolus, and then closing the incision primarily. - This approach is favored because the bowel itself is usually **healthy**, and the obstruction is purely mechanical from the worms. *Resection with end to end anastomosis* - This aggressive approach of **resecting** part of the bowel is generally **unnecessary** and **risky** when the bowel is otherwise healthy and viable, as is typical in roundworm obstruction. - It carries risks of **anastomotic leakage** and **short gut syndrome** if repeated resections are needed, making simple worm removal a preferable option. *Resection with side to side anastomosis* - Similar to end-to-end anastomosis, **resection** of the bowel is generally avoided unless there is **irreversible damage** or **ischemia** to the bowel, which is not the primary pathology in uncomplicated roundworm obstruction. - This method is more complex and less optimal than simply removing the obstruction, given the typically *healthy* nature of the bowel wall. *Diversion* - **Diversion** procedures, such as **stoma formation**, are generally reserved for situations with **perforation**, **gross contamination**, or complex obstructions where primary repair is considered unsafe or impossible. - In a straightforward ileal obstruction due to worms, the goal is to resolve the obstruction with minimal intervention to preserve bowel continuity.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about Marjolin's ulcer?

All of the options. ***All of the options*** - Marjolin's ulcer is a **malignant transformation** that occurs in chronic wounds and scars, which tend to be **long-standing**. - It most commonly leads to the development of **squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)**, and these lesions are generally **slow-growing**. *Squamous cell carcinoma develops* - This statement is true; the most common histological type of malignancy arising in a Marjolin's ulcer is **squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)**. - Less frequently, **basal cell carcinoma** or other sarcomas can also arise, but **SCC** is the predominant form. - The SCC arising in Marjolin's ulcer tends to be **more aggressive** than conventional SCC, with higher rates of **local invasion** and **metastasis**. *Slow growing lesion* - This statement is true; Marjolin's ulcer lesions typically exhibit a **slow growth rate** over an extended period. - This characteristic often contributes to delayed diagnosis, as patients may initially dismiss the changes as non-malignant wound complications. - The latency period can range from **years to decades** after the initial injury. *Develops in long standing scar* - This statement is true; Marjolin's ulcer is defined by its development in areas of **chronic inflammation**, such as **burn scars**, **pressure sores**, **venous stasis ulcers**, and other non-healing wounds. - The latency period for malignant transformation in such scars can range from years to decades, indicating a **long-standing** nature. - **Burn scars** are the most common site, accounting for the majority of cases.

Question 1

A person is not able to extend his metacarpophalangeal joint. Injury to which of the following nerve result in this?

Accepted Answer

Posterior Interosseous nerve injury

Answer

Radial nerve injury

Answer

Ulnar nerve injury

Answer

Median nerve injury

Question 2

All are absolute indications of tonsillectomy except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Chronic tonsillitis

Answer

Peritonsillar abscess

Answer

Tonsils causing obstructive sleep apnea

Answer

Suspicious malignancy

Question 3

What are the key characteristics of Evans syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenia

Answer

Low lymphocyte and red blood cell counts

Answer

High platelet and lymphocyte counts

Answer

A reduction in all blood cell types

Question 4

Which of the following is not a recognized complication of chronic pancreatitis?

Accepted Answer

Renal artery thrombosis

Answer

Pancreatic pseudocyst

Answer

Splenic vein thrombosis

Answer

Pancreatic fistula

Question 5

From which surface is the Purkinje IV image formed?

Accepted Answer

Posterior surface of lens

Answer

Anterior surface of cornea

Answer

Posterior surface of cornea

Answer

Anterior surface of lens

Question 6

What are the characteristic features of Posner-Schlossman syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Unilateral glaucomatous changes with mild anterior uveitis

Answer

Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilloedema

Answer

Granulomatous uveitis with iris heterochromia

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

Forced duction test is to find out?

Accepted Answer

Mechanical restriction of eye movement

Answer

Ocular muscle palsy

Answer

Ocular muscle spasm

Answer

Angle of deviation

Question 8

In which one of the following conditions is gas under the diaphragm typically seen?

Accepted Answer

Perforated duodenal ulcer

Answer

Typhoid perforation

Answer

After laparotomy

Answer

Spontaneous rupture of oesophagus

Question 9

Treatment for ileal obstruction due to roundworm infestation is

Accepted Answer

Enterotomy, removal of worms and primary closure

Answer

Resection with end to end anastomosis

Answer

Resection with side to side anastomosis

Answer

Diversion

Question 10

Which of the following statements is true about Marjolin's ulcer?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma develops

Answer

Slow growing lesion

Answer

Develops in long standing scar

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

ENT

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Surgery