NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: In which vein is Central Venous Pressure (CVP) most accurately monitored?

Internal jugular vein. ***Internal jugular vein*** - The **internal jugular vein** provides the **most direct and consistent access** to the superior vena cava and right atrium, where CVP is accurately measured. - Its straight course and reliable anatomical landmarks make it a preferred site for CVP catheter insertion. *Anterior jugular vein* - The **anterior jugular vein** is smaller and often has a more tortuous course, making consistent and reliable CVP monitoring difficult. - It is not typically chosen for central venous access due to its anatomical variability and smaller caliber. *External jugular vein* - The **external jugular vein** is superficially located and easier to access but often has valves and a more oblique angle to the subclavian vein, making catheter advancement to the central circulation challenging. - Catheter tip placement is less consistent for accurate CVP measurements compared to the internal jugular vein. *Inferior vena cava* - While the **inferior vena cava** eventually drains into the right atrium, access is typically via the femoral vein, which is associated with a higher risk of infection and deep vein thrombosis for long-term CVP monitoring. - Measurements from the inferior vena cava or femoral vein can be affected by **intra-abdominal pressure** and are not as accurately reflective of right atrial pressure as those from the superior vena cava.

Q: Use of spironolactone in liver cirrhosis is

Decrease edema. ***Decrease edema*** - Spironolactone is an **aldosterone antagonist** that blocks the effects of aldosterone, which is often elevated in liver cirrhosis. - By antagonizing aldosterone, spironolactone promotes **sodium and water excretion**, directly leading to a reduction in **ascites and peripheral edema** [1]. *May improve liver function indirectly* - While spironolactone manages complications of liver cirrhosis, it does **not directly improve liver function** or reverse liver damage. - Its primary role is in **symptom management**, particularly fluid retention, not in healing the underlying liver disease. *May decrease afterload* - Spironolactone's primary action is on the **kidneys** to promote diuresis; it is **not a vasodilator** and therefore does not directly decrease cardiac afterload. - Any effect on systemic vascular resistance would be minimal and secondary to volume changes rather than a direct vasodilatory property. *May decrease intravascular volume* - Spironolactone **decreases total body sodium and water**, leading to a reduction in extravascular fluid (edema and ascites) [1]. - While it decreases the total amount of fluid in the body, its main effect is on **extravascular volume**, and it's chosen over loop diuretics in cirrhosis to prevent **excessive intravascular depletion** which can worsen renal function.

Q: Down-beat nystagmus is seen in lesion of ?

Cerebellum. ***Cerebellum*** * **Down-beat nystagmus (DBN)** is most commonly associated with lesions in the **craniocervical junction** and **posterior fossa**, particularly affecting the **flocculonodular lobe** of the cerebellum. * The cerebellum plays a crucial role in maintaining **gaze stability** and coordinating eye movements; damage to specific cerebellar pathways can disrupt the vestibulo-ocular reflex, leading to DBN [1]. *Brainstem* * While the **brainstem** contains critical circuits for eye movements, lesions here typically result in other forms of nystagmus, such as **up-beat nystagmus** or **gaze-evoked nystagmus**, depending on the specific structures involved [1]. * Damage to brainstem nuclei or pathways controlling vertical gaze is usually indicated by different patterns of oculomotor dysfunction. *Basal ganglia* * Lesions in the **basal ganglia** are primarily associated with **movement disorders** like Parkinson's disease or Huntington's disease. * They do not typically cause primary nystagmus; any ocular abnormalities would generally be secondary to global motor control issues rather than direct involvement in oculomotor pathways. *Hippocampus* * The **hippocampus** is a key structure involved in **memory formation** and spatial navigation. * Lesions in the hippocampus cause **amnesia** and navigational deficits, but they are not directly involved in eye movement control or the generation of nystagmus.

Q: "Bread-crumb" appearance is seen in ?

Complicated cataracts. ***Complicated cataracts*** - A "bread-crumb" appearance, specifically referring to small, refractile opacities in the posterior capsule, is a characteristic finding in **complicated cataracts**. - These cataracts often develop due to chronic intraocular diseases such as **uveitis**, **retinal detachment**, or **intraocular tumors**, leading to secondary lens changes. *Cataract due to diabetes* - Diabetic cataracts typically present as "snowflake" opacities in younger patients or accelerated nuclear/cortical sclerosis in older patients, not a "bread-crumb" appearance. - They are often associated with poor glycemic control and metabolic changes affecting lens hydration and protein structure. *Cataract due to CMV infection* - Cataracts associated with **cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection** are more common in congenital infections and can manifest as varying degrees of lens opacification, but "bread-crumb" is not a typical description. - Congenital CMV can cause a spectrum of ocular abnormalities, including microphthalmia, chorioretinitis, and optic atrophy, in addition to cataracts. *Cataract due to Toxoplasmosis* - **Toxoplasmosis** primarily causes **chorioretinitis**, especially in congenital cases, with lens involvement being less common and not typically described as having a "bread-crumb" appearance. - If a cataract develops, it's usually secondary to inflammation or direct lens invasion, but the characteristic morphology differs.

Q: Drug of choice for open angle glaucoma:

Latanoprost. ***Latanoprost*** - **Prostaglandin F2α analogs** like latanoprost are generally considered **first-line therapy** for open-angle glaucoma due to their efficacy and once-daily dosing. - They work by **increasing uveoscleral outflow** of aqueous humor, thereby lowering intraocular pressure (IOP). *Acetazolamide* - **Acetazolamide** is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** that reduces aqueous humor production. - It is typically used for **acute angle-closure glaucoma** or when initial treatments fail, often due to systemic side effects with long-term use. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is a **non-selective beta-blocker** that reduces aqueous humor production. - While effective, it is often a second-line agent or used in combination due to potential systemic side effects like **bronchospasm** and **bradycardia**. *Brimonidine* - **Brimonidine** is an **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** that reduces aqueous humor production and increases uveoscleral outflow. - It is typically used as a second-line agent or in combination therapy due to potential side effects like **ocular pruritus** and **allergic conjunctivitis**.

Q: Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?

Post. longitudinal ligament. ***Post. longitudinal ligament*** - Whiplash injury, often caused by **hyperextension-hyperflexion** of the cervical spine, commonly results in a tear of the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. - This ligament is crucial for stabilizing the spine and preventing **hyperflexion**, making it vulnerable during sudden, forceful movements. *Ligamenta flava* - The **ligamenta flava** are located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral canal and are primarily composed of elastic tissue, providing flexibility. - While they can be injured in severe trauma, they are less commonly implicated in typical whiplash compared to the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. *Anterior longitudinal ligament* - The **anterior longitudinal ligament** is primarily involved in preventing **hyperextension** of the spine. - While it can be injured in whiplash, the hyperextension phase typically stresses this ligament, but the hyperflexion rebound phase is more damaging to posterior structures. *Supraspinal ligament* - The **supraspinal ligament** connects the tips of the spinous processes and primarily limits **flexion** of the spine. - While it can be strained during whiplash, it is not the primary ligament commonly torn in typical whiplash injuries, which often involve deeper spinal ligaments.

Q: In a child having diarrhoea with perianal moist crust, which condition is most likely diagnosed?

Acrodermatitis enteropathica. ***Acrodermatitis enteropathica*** - This condition is a **zinc deficiency** syndrome, which can be either inherited or acquired. - It presents with a classic triad of **diarrhoea**, **dermatitis** (often periorificial and acral with moist, crusted lesions), and **alopecia**. - The **perianal moist crust** is a characteristic finding of the periorificial dermatitis seen in this condition. *Pellagra* - Pellagra is caused by **niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency** and is characterized by the "4 D's": **dermatitis** (often sun-exposed areas), **diarrhoea**, **dementia**, and eventually death. - The dermatitis of pellagra is typically **symmetrical, hyperpigmented, and photosensitive**, not moist perianal crusts, differentiating it from the presented case. *Riboflavin deficiency* - **Riboflavin deficiency** typically manifests as **cheilosis**, angular stomatitis, glossitis, and seborrheic dermatitis, but not specifically perianal moist crusts with diarrhoea. - While it can affect mucous membranes, the specific perianal presentation with diarrhoea points away from this diagnosis. *Kwashiorkor* - **Kwashiorkor** is a form of protein-energy malnutrition that can present with **diarrhoea** and skin changes (flaky paint dermatosis, hypopigmentation). - However, the skin changes are typically **desquamating** and affect dependent areas, not the characteristic **moist, crusted periorificial lesions** seen in zinc deficiency. - Kwashiorkor also typically presents with **edema**, which is not mentioned in this case.

Q: What is the drug of choice for most forms of interstitial lung disease?

Corticosteroids. ***Corticosteroids*** - **Corticosteroids** are the **drug of choice** for many forms of **interstitial lung disease (ILD)** due to their potent **anti-inflammatory** and **immunosuppressive properties**, which help reduce lung inflammation and prevent fibrosis. - They are particularly effective in inflammatory ILDs such as **sarcoidosis**, **hypersensitivity pneumonitis**, and some **connective tissue disease-associated ILDs**. *Antibiotics* - **Antibiotics** are primarily used to treat bacterial and other microbial infections and are **not effective** against the **inflammatory and fibrotic processes** characteristic of most ILDs. - They might be used if there's a **secondary bacterial infection** complicating ILD, but not as primary treatment for the ILD itself. *Bronchodilators* - **Bronchodilators** work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, making them wider and easier to breathe through, which is beneficial in conditions like **asthma** or **COPD**. - They are **not primarily used** in ILD as the main problem is **inflammation and scarring of the lung tissue**, not reversible airway constriction. *Aspirin* - **Aspirin** is an **NSAID** with **anti-inflammatory**, **anti-platelet**, and **analgesic properties**, commonly used for pain relief, fever reduction, and cardiovascular protection. - It has **no established role** in the primary treatment of **interstitial lung disease**, as its anti-inflammatory effects are typically insufficient for the severe inflammation seen in ILD.

Q: Young male with history of trauma having left sided testis swollen and erythematous. Other side normal. What is the diagnosis?

Hematoma. ***Hematoma*** - A history of **trauma** leading to a **swollen and erythematous testis** is highly indicative of a testicular hematoma. Trauma can cause bleeding within the scrotal sac, leading to the observed symptoms. - A hematoma is a localized collection of **blood outside of blood vessels**, which in this case, results from the injury to the testis or surrounding structures. *Torsion* - Testicular torsion typically presents with **sudden, severe pain** and swelling, and can be associated with absent **cremasteric reflex**. While swelling is present, the clear history of trauma points away from spontaneous torsion. - Torsion is an **emergency** caused by the twisting of the spermatic cord, which **cuts off blood supply** to the testis, and usually lacks a direct antecedent trauma. *Carcinoma* - Testicular carcinoma usually presents as a **painless, firm mass** within the testis. Pain can occur if there is hemorrhage within the tumor or rapid growth. - While it can cause swelling, the acute onset and direct association with trauma make carcinoma less likely, as it is a **slowly progressive** condition. *Hernia* - An inguinal hernia typically presents as a **groin bulge** that can extend into the scrotum, and usually reduces with manipulation or lying down. It is often associated with a cough or strain. - While a hernia can cause scrotal swelling, the primary presentation is usually a reducible mass, and the direct link to trauma with associated erythema is not typical for a simple hernia.

Q: May-Thurner or Cockett syndrome involves:

Left iliac vein compression. ***Correct: Left iliac vein compression*** - May-Thurner syndrome, also known as Cockett syndrome, specifically describes the **compression of the left common iliac vein** by the overlying right common iliac artery. - This anatomical compression can lead to **venous outflow obstruction**, increasing the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg. *Incorrect: Internal iliac artery obstruction* - This condition involves an artery and is unrelated to May-Thurner syndrome, which is a **venous compression disorder**. - Obstruction of the internal iliac artery would typically cause symptoms of **pelvic ischemia** or erectile dysfunction, not venous DVT. *Incorrect: Common iliac artery obstruction* - Obstruction of the common iliac artery is an **arterial occlusion** that would cause peripheral artery disease symptoms in the leg, such as claudication or rest pain. - It does not involve the compression of a vein by an artery, which is characteristic of May-Thurner syndrome. *Incorrect: Internal iliac vein obstruction* - While this is a venous issue, May-Thurner syndrome specifically involves the **common iliac vein**, not the internal iliac vein. - Obstruction of the internal iliac vein would typically present with symptoms related to pelvic venous congestion, distinct from the left lower extremity DVT associated with May-Thurner syndrome.

Question 1

In which vein is Central Venous Pressure (CVP) most accurately monitored?

Accepted Answer

Internal jugular vein

Answer

Anterior jugular vein

Answer

External jugular vein

Answer

Inferior vena cava

Question 2

Use of spironolactone in liver cirrhosis is

Accepted Answer

Decrease edema

Answer

May improve liver function indirectly

Answer

May decrease afterload

Answer

May decrease intravascular volume

Question 3

Down-beat nystagmus is seen in lesion of ?

Accepted Answer

Cerebellum

Answer

Basal ganglia

Answer

Hippocampus

Answer

Brainstem

Question 4

"Bread-crumb" appearance is seen in ?

Accepted Answer

Complicated cataracts

Answer

Cataract due to CMV infection

Answer

Cataract due to diabetes

Answer

Cataract due to Toxoplasmosis

Question 5

Drug of choice for open angle glaucoma:

Accepted Answer

Latanoprost

Answer

Acetazolamide

Answer

Brimonidine

Answer

Timolol

Question 6

Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?

Accepted Answer

Post. longitudinal ligament

Answer

Ligamenta flava

Answer

Supraspinal ligament

Answer

Anterior longitudinal ligament

Question 7

In a child having diarrhoea with perianal moist crust, which condition is most likely diagnosed?

Accepted Answer

Acrodermatitis enteropathica

Answer

Pellagra

Answer

Riboflavin deficiency

Answer

Kwashiorkor

Question 8

What is the drug of choice for most forms of interstitial lung disease?

Accepted Answer

Corticosteroids

Answer

Antibiotics

Answer

Bronchodilators

Answer

Aspirin

Question 9

Young male with history of trauma having left sided testis swollen and erythematous. Other side normal. What is the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Hematoma

Answer

Carcinoma

Answer

Hernia

Answer

Torsion

Question 10

May-Thurner or Cockett syndrome involves:

Accepted Answer

Left iliac vein compression

Answer

Internal iliac artery obstruction

Answer

Common iliac artery obstruction

Answer

Internal iliac vein obstruction

NEET-PG 2013

Anesthesiology

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Orthopaedics

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Surgery