FMGE 2024 Previous Year Questions Practice Questions

Q: A surgical procedure is performed on the great saphenous vein, around 2.5 cm anterior to the medial malleolus. Which of the following structures is most likely to be injured?

Saphenous nerve. ***Saphenous nerve***- The **saphenous nerve**, a terminal cutaneous branch of the femoral nerve, accompanies the **great saphenous vein (GSV)** throughout the length of the leg on the medial side.- It crosses the ankle just anterior to the medial malleolus, lying immediately adjacent to the GSV, making it highly susceptible to injury during surgical procedures like GSV cannulation, harvesting, or varicose vein surgery in this region.*Sural nerve*- The **sural nerve** is located laterally, typically accompanying the **small saphenous vein (SSV)**, and runs behind the **lateral malleolus**.- Therefore, it is anatomically distant from the surgical site located anterior to the medial malleolus.*Deep peroneal nerve*- The **deep peroneal nerve** is located deep within the **anterior compartment** of the leg and supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment.- Although its terminal branches cross the dorsum of the foot, it is not directly associated with the superficial GSV or the medial malleolus in a manner that would predispose it to injury during this specific superficial procedure.*Tibial nerve*- The **tibial nerve** passes through the **tarsal tunnel**, located deep and posterior (behind) the **medial malleolus**.- This nerve supplies the posterior compartment muscles and is deep to the fascia, making it unlikely to be injured during a superficial procedure performed 2.5 cm *anterior* to the medial malleolus. [Practice more FMGE 2024 questions on OnCourse]

Q: In the given image, the physician is trying to palpate which of the following arteries?

Posterior tibial artery. ***Posterior tibial artery***- The standard location for palpation of the **posterior tibial artery** pulse is just posterior and slightly inferior to the **medial malleolus**, ensuring evaluation of the posterior circulation of the foot.- Palpating this pulse, along with the **dorsalis pedis artery** pulse, is essential for determining adequate distal perfusion and diagnosing conditions like **Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)**.*Anterior tibial artery*- The **anterior tibial artery** is located deep within the anterior compartment of the leg.- It is typically not palpated in the leg; rather, its continuation, the **dorsalis pedis artery**, is palpated on the dorsum of the foot.*Dorsalis pedis artery*- Palpation of the **dorsalis pedis artery** (DPA) occurs on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to the tendon of the **extensor hallucis longus**.- This pulse assesses the blood flow supplied by the anterior circulation, differentiating it from the site behind the medial malleolus.*Lateral plantar artery*- The **lateral plantar artery** is situated deep within the sole of the foot, alongside the lateral plantar nerve.- Its deep location makes it generally inaccessible and impractical for routine clinical pulse assessment. [Practice more FMGE 2024 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following structures develop from the 6th pharyngeal arch artery on the left side?

Ductus arteriosus. ***Ductus arteriosus*** - The **ductus arteriosus** develops from the persistence of the distal portion of the **left 6th pharyngeal arch artery**. [2] - This structure is critical in fetal circulation, allowing blood to bypass the non-functional fetal lungs by shunting flow from the left pulmonary artery to the descending aorta. [1], [3] *Arch of Aorta* - The **arch of the aorta** mainly develops from the **aortic sac** and the distal part of the **left 4th pharyngeal arch artery**. - The 6th arch contributes only to the pulmonary system and the ductus shunt, not the primary aortic arch. *Carotid arteries* - Both the **common carotid arteries** and the **internal carotid arteries** are major derivatives of the **3rd pharyngeal arch arteries**. - The 3rd arch artery structure is completely separate from the 6th arch involvement in lung circulation development. *Subclavian artery* - The **left subclavian artery** arises largely from the **7th cervical intersegmental artery**, which is not part of the aortic arch system itself. - The **right subclavian artery** develops from the right 4th pharyngeal arch artery, the 7th intersegmental artery, and the right dorsal aorta. [Practice more FMGE 2024 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following is the type of joint between epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone?

Synchondrosis. ***Synchondrosis***- A **synchondrosis** is a cartilaginous joint in which the bone parts are united by **hyaline cartilage**. - The classic example is the **epiphyseal plate** (growth plate) found between the epiphysis and diaphysis of a growing long bone, which permits bone lengthening. [1] *Symphysis*- A **symphysis** is a type of cartilaginous joint where articulating surfaces are covered by hyaline cartilage but separated by a broad plate of **fibrocartilage**.- Examples include the **pubic symphysis** and the joints between vertebral bodies (intervertebral discs). *Synostosis*- A **synostosis** is an immobile bony joint formed when two bones grow together and completely fuse, typically resulting from the ossification of a fibrous or cartilaginous joint.- After skeletal maturity, the synchondrosis of the epiphyseal plate ultimately forms a **synostosis** (the epiphyseal line/scar). [1] *Syndesmosis*- A **syndesmosis** is a type of fibrous joint where articulating bones are joined by a sheet of fibrous tissue, specifically a **ligament** or an **interosseous membrane**.- Key examples include the distal **tibiofibular joint** and the joints between the shafts of the radius and ulna. [Practice more FMGE 2024 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following is the use of the Mallampatti classification?

Endotracheal intubation. ***Correct Option C: Endotracheal intubation*** - The Mallampati classification assesses the visibility of the soft palate, uvula, and tonsillar pillars, which directly correlates with the ease of achieving a satisfactory view during **direct laryngoscopy** - It is a critical component of the **pre-anesthetic airway assessment** used alongside thyromental distance and mouth opening to predict difficult airway management and guide intubation strategy - Classes I-IV predict increasing difficulty in intubation, with Class III-IV indicating potentially difficult airways *Incorrect Option A: To evaluate the fitness of the patient* - Patient fitness evaluation involves holistic assessment of **cardiopulmonary reserve** and functional capacity, ensuring the patient can safely tolerate the physiological stress of surgery and anesthesia - Fitness relies on optimizing chronic medical conditions and functional capacity, not just anatomical classification of the airway opening *Incorrect Option B: To evaluate the pros and cons of surgery* - This evaluation is a clinical and ethical judgment based on the patient's **disease severity**, anticipated benefits, potential complications, and mortality associated with the procedure - The Mallampati score does not directly contribute to weighing the overall risk-benefit ratio of the surgical procedure itself *Incorrect Option D: To evaluate the risk of surgery* - Surgical risk is determined using tools like the **ASA physical status classification** (P1-P6), comorbidities, and type of surgery - While a predicted difficult airway (Mallampati class III or IV) increases the **anesthesia-related risk**, it does not comprehensively define the overall surgical risk profile [Practice more FMGE 2024 questions on OnCourse]

Question 1

A surgical procedure is performed on the great saphenous vein, around 2.5 cm anterior to the medial malleolus. Which of the following structures is most likely to be injured?

Accepted Answer

Saphenous nerve

Answer

Tibial nerve

Answer

Deep peroneal nerve

Answer

Sural nerve

Question 2

In the given image, the physician is trying to palpate which of the following arteries?

Accepted Answer

Posterior tibial artery

Answer

Anterior tibial artery

Answer

Lateral plantar artery

Answer

Dorsalis pedis artery

Question 3

Which of the following structures develop from the 6th pharyngeal arch artery on the left side?

Accepted Answer

Ductus arteriosus

Answer

Arch of Aorta

Answer

Subclavian artery

Answer

Carotid arteries

Question 4

Which of the following is the type of joint between epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone?

Accepted Answer

Synchondrosis

Answer

Syndesmosis

Answer

Synostosis

Answer

Symphysis

Question 5

Which of the following is the use of the Mallampatti classification?

Accepted Answer

Endotracheal intubation

Answer

To evaluate the fitness of the patient

Answer

To evaluate the pros and cons of surgery

Answer

To evaluate the risk of surgery

Question 6

Which of the following is the most common drug used in day care surgery/TIVA?

Accepted Answer

Propofol

Answer

Sodium thiopentone

Answer

Ketamine

Answer

Halothane

Question 7

Zellweger syndrome is associated with which cellular organelle?

Accepted Answer

A. Peroxisomes

Answer

C. Lysosomes

Answer

D. Ribosomes

Answer

B. Mitochondria

Question 8

A 3-month-old baby presents with severe hepatomegaly, cataracts in both eyes, lethargy, and hypotonia. Based on these symptoms, which enzyme deficiency is most likely involved?

Accepted Answer

Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyl Transferase

Answer

Hepatic Glucose-6-Phosphatase

Answer

UDP-Galactose-4-Epimerase

Answer

Galactokinase

Question 9

A child with a sore throat starts developing skin lesions as in the image below. Which of the following is the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Guttate psoriasis

Answer

Pustular psoriasis

Answer

Inverse psoriasis

Answer

Erythrodermic

Question 10

Which of the following topical local anesthetics is commonly used in cataract surgery?

Accepted Answer

Proparacaine 0.5%

Answer

Bupivacaine 0.5%

Answer

Halothane

Answer

Nitrous Oxide

FMGE 2024

Anatomy

Anesthesiology

Biochemistry

Dermatology

Ophthalmology