NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: The mechanism of action of uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation involves:

Disruption of proton gradient across the inner membrane. ***Disruption of proton gradient across the inner membrane*** - Uncouplers such as **2,4-dinitrophenol** increase the permeability of the **inner mitochondrial membrane** to protons. - This dissipates the **proton motive force** that is normally used by ATP synthase to produce ATP, leading to the uncoupling of electron transport from ATP synthesis. *Inhibition of ATP synthase* - Inhibitors of ATP synthase directly block the enzyme's activity, preventing the synthesis of ATP while the **proton gradient** remains intact. - This mechanism is distinct from uncouplers, which allow electron transport to continue while dissipating the proton gradient. *Stimulation of ATP synthase* - Uncouplers do not stimulate ATP synthase; rather, their action prevents ATP synthase from effectively utilizing the **proton gradient** for ATP production. - Stimulation of ATP synthase would lead to increased ATP synthesis, which is contrary to the effect of uncouplers. *Blocking electron transport chain complexes* - Inhibitors of the **electron transport chain** (e.g., cyanide, rotenone) directly prevent the flow of electrons, thereby preventing the pumping of protons and the formation of a **proton gradient**. - Uncouplers, in contrast, allow electron transport to proceed but dissipate the proton gradient after it has been established.

Q: Fumarate is formed from which amino acid?

Tyrosine. ***Tyrosine*** - **Tyrosine** is a **glucogenic and ketogenic amino acid** that is catabolized to acetoacetate and fumarate. - **Fumarate** then enters the **citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)**, whereas acetoacetate is a ketone body. *Methionine* - **Methionine** is an **essential amino acid** and a precursor for **S-adenosylmethionine (SAM)**, a methyl donor in many reactions. - Its catabolism produces **succinyl CoA**, not fumarate, through a series of steps via propionyl CoA. *Valine* - **Valine** is a **branched-chain amino acid (BCAA)** that is exclusively **glucogenic**. - Its catabolism ultimately leads to the formation of **succinyl CoA**, which can enter the citric acid cycle. *Histidine* - **Histidine** is an **essential amino acid** that is catabolized to **formiminoglutamate (FIGLU)**. - FIGLU is then converted to **glutamate**, which can eventually be deaminated to α-ketoglutarate, a citric acid cycle intermediate, but not directly fumarate.

Q: The characteristic color of adipocere is:

Grayish white. ***Grayish white*** - Adipocere, also known as **grave wax**, is a waxy substance formed during the decomposition of a body in specific environmental conditions. - Its characteristic appearance is that of a **grayish-white, greasy, or crumbly** material, resulting from the hydrolysis and hydrogenation of body fats. *Black* - A **black discoloration** in a decomposing body is typically associated with **putrefaction** and the formation of **sulfmethemoglobin**, not adipocere formation. - This indicates a different stage and process of decomposition, usually in the presence of oxygen and bacterial activity. *Brown* - **Brown discoloration** can be seen in various stages of decomposition due to the breakdown of blood pigments, but it is not the characteristic color of **adipocere**. - Adipocere's formation involves the transformation of fat into fatty acids, giving it a distinct pale color. *Red* - **Red discoloration** is generally associated with fresh blood or **carbon monoxide poisoning (cherry-red lividity)** in a deceased body. - It is not a feature of adipocere formation, which involves chemical changes to body fat over a longer period.

Q: Hyaline degeneration is found in -

Alcoholic liver disease. ***Alcoholic liver disease*** - **Mallory bodies**, a form of hyaline degeneration, are characteristic histologic findings in hepatocytes in alcoholic liver disease. - They represent aggregates of **intermediate filaments** and other proteins, indicating severe hepatocellular damage. *Acute myocardial infarction* - Characterized by **coagulative necrosis** of cardiac myocytes due to ischemia, not hyaline degeneration. - Inflammation and subsequent repair with **fibrosis** are key features. *Alzheimer's disease* - Defined by the presence of **senile plaques** (amyloid-beta deposits) and **neurofibrillary tangles** (hyperphosphorylated tau protein). - These are specific protein aggregates, distinct from hyaline degeneration of cellular components. *Acute appendicitis* - Involves acute inflammation of the appendix, leading to **neutrophilic infiltration** and often **fibrinopurulent exudate**. - There is no characteristic hyaline degeneration associated with this inflammatory process.

Q: Which of the following is an example of topical administration producing only local effects (not systemic)?

Topical corticosteroid cream. ***Topical corticosteroid cream*** - When applied to the skin for conditions like dermatitis, topical corticosteroids primarily exert their effects at the site of application, reducing **local inflammation** and itching. - While systemic absorption can occur with potent steroids over large areas, typical use aims for **localized action** without significant systemic effects. *Sublingual nitroglycerin* - This route is designed for **rapid systemic absorption** through the oral mucosa, bypassing first-pass metabolism to quickly treat angina. - The goal is a **widespread vasodilatory effect** throughout the body, not a local one within the mouth. *Transdermal patch* - Transdermal patches, such as those for nicotine or fentanyl, are specifically designed to deliver medication **systemically** through the skin into the bloodstream over a prolonged period. - They provide a **sustained release** and systemic therapeutic effect throughout the body. *Rectal diazepam* - Administered rectally, diazepam is absorbed into the systemic circulation to produce **CNS effects** such as sedation, anxiolysis, or anticonvulsant activity. - Although the administration is local, the intended clinical effect is **systemic** and widespread throughout the body.

Q: Which triptan is available in nasal spray form?

Sumatriptan. ***Sumatriptan*** - **Sumatriptan** is available in multiple formulations, including **oral, subcutaneous injection, and nasal spray**, making it versatile for migraine treatment [1], [2]. - The nasal spray formulation allows for **faster absorption** and onset of action, which can be beneficial for patients with nausea or vomiting during migraine attacks [1]. *Rizatriptan* - **Rizatriptan** is primarily available in **oral tablet** and **orally disintegrating tablet** (ODT) forms [2]. - It does not have a commonly available nasal spray formulation for migraine treatment [2]. *Naratriptan* - **Naratriptan** is available as an **oral tablet** and is known for its **longer half-life** and generally milder side effect profile compared to sumatriptan [2]. - It is not available in a nasal spray formulation [2]. *Frovatriptan* - **Frovatriptan** is available exclusively as an **oral tablet** and is notable for having the **longest half-life** among triptans, making it useful for preventing recurring migraines [2]. - There is no nasal spray formulation for frovatriptan [2].

Q: In zero gravity, the V/Q ratio is?

1. ***Correct: 1*** - In **zero gravity**, the normal physiological effects of gravity on both ventilation and perfusion are eliminated, leading to a more uniform distribution. - Without gravity, blood flow and gas distribution become more even throughout the lungs, resulting in a V/Q ratio that approaches **unity (1)** across all lung regions. - This represents the ideal physiological state where ventilation perfectly matches perfusion. *Incorrect: 0.8* - A V/Q ratio of **0.8** represents the **average normal V/Q ratio** in an upright individual on Earth, where gravity creates disparities in ventilation and perfusion. - This value is an average, with regional variations (apex ~3.3, base ~0.6) in the lungs; it does not reflect the uniform conditions of zero gravity. *Incorrect: 2* - A V/Q ratio of **2** would indicate a significant **ventilation-perfusion mismatch** where ventilation greatly exceeds perfusion. - This scenario suggests substantial **dead space ventilation**, which is not the expected outcome in a zero-gravity environment where distribution is balanced. *Incorrect: 3* - A V/Q ratio of **3** represents an even more extreme case of **ventilation exceeding perfusion**, indicating severe physiologic dead space. - Such a high V/Q ratio would signify a major functional impairment, which is contrary to the more ideal and uniform distribution expected in zero gravity.

Q: In an ECG the cardiac event corresponding to the ST segment is:

Ventricular repolarisation. ***Ventricular repolarisation*** - The **ST segment** represents the **early phase of ventricular repolarization**, corresponding to the **plateau phase (Phase 2)** of the ventricular action potential. - During this phase, the ventricles are completely depolarized and calcium influx balances potassium efflux, creating an isoelectric (flat) segment on the ECG. - The ST segment extends from the **end of the QRS complex (J point)** to the **beginning of the T wave**, after which rapid repolarization occurs. - Together, the **ST segment and T wave** represent the complete process of ventricular repolarization. *Atrial depolarisation* - **Atrial depolarization** is represented by the **P wave** on the ECG, not the ST segment. - This occurs first in the cardiac cycle, triggering atrial contraction and filling of the ventricles. *Ventricular depolarisation* - **Ventricular depolarization** is represented by the **QRS complex**, which immediately **precedes** the ST segment. - This event triggers ventricular contraction (systole) and occurs before the plateau phase. *Atrial repolarisation* - **Atrial repolarization** occurs during the QRS complex and is **obscured** by the much larger electrical signal from ventricular depolarization. - It is not visible as a separate deflection on the standard ECG.

Q: Isocapnic buffering is?

Normal pCO2 with increased CO2. ***Normal pCO2 with increased CO2*** - Isocapnic buffering refers to the process where the body buffers an **increase in lactic acid** or other metabolic acids without a significant change (maintaining it within a normal range) in **arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2)**. - This is achieved by an increase in **ventilation** stimulated by the acid, which expels more CO2 to compensate for the additional CO2 produced from the buffering reaction, thereby keeping pCO2 stable. *Increased pCO2 with increased CO2* - This scenario would indicate **hypoventilation** or a failure of the respiratory compensation mechanism to maintain pCO2 within normal limits during an increased metabolic CO2 load. - **Increased pCO2** would signify a state of **respiratory acidosis** or inadequate respiratory compensation, not isocapnic buffering. *Increased pCO2 with decreased CO2* - This statement is inherently contradictory; it is not possible to have an **increased pCO2** simultaneously with **decreased CO2** in the context of buffering. - **pCO2** is a measure of the partial pressure of carbon dioxide, directly related to the amount of CO2 present and dissolved in the blood. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because "Normal pCO2 with increased CO2" accurately describes the physiological phenomenon of **isocapnic buffering**.

Q: What does the transient response observed during the insertion of an electrode in electromyography (EMG) indicate?

Cell membrane disruption. **Cell membrane disruption** - The **transient response** observed during electrode insertion in **EMG** is caused by the mechanical trauma of the needle disrupting the **muscle fiber cell membranes**. - This disruption leads to a brief depolarization and subsequent repolarization of the affected fibers, generating characteristic electrical activity. *Spontaneous muscle activity* - **Spontaneous muscle activity**, such as **fibrillation potentials** or **positive sharp waves**, occurs independently of electrode insertion. - While observed during EMG, these are indicative of **denervation** or **myopathy** and are not directly caused by the act of insertion itself. *Voluntary muscle contraction* - **Voluntary muscle contraction** is recorded when the patient actively contracts the muscle and results in **motor unit action potentials (MUAPs)**. - This is a distinct process from the transient activity produced by electrode insertion. *Induced muscle contraction* - **Induced muscle contraction** typically refers to activity caused by **nerve stimulation** (e.g., in nerve conduction studies) or direct electrical stimulation of the muscle. - This is not the mechanism for the transient response during simple electrode insertion.

Question 1

The mechanism of action of uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation involves:

Accepted Answer

Disruption of proton gradient across the inner membrane

Answer

Inhibition of ATP synthase

Answer

Stimulation of ATP synthase

Answer

Blocking electron transport chain complexes

Question 2

Fumarate is formed from which amino acid?

Accepted Answer

Tyrosine

Answer

Methionine

Answer

Valine

Answer

Histidine

Question 3

The characteristic color of adipocere is:

Accepted Answer

Grayish white

Answer

Black

Answer

Brown

Answer

Red

Question 4

Hyaline degeneration is found in -

Accepted Answer

Alcoholic liver disease

Answer

Alzheimer's disease

Answer

Acute myocardial infarction

Answer

Acute appendicitis

Question 5

Which of the following is an example of topical administration producing only local effects (not systemic)?

Accepted Answer

Topical corticosteroid cream

Answer

Sublingual nitroglycerin

Answer

Transdermal patch

Answer

Rectal diazepam

Question 6

Which triptan is available in nasal spray form?

Accepted Answer

Sumatriptan

Answer

Rizatriptan

Answer

Naratriptan

Answer

Frovatriptan

Question 7

In zero gravity, the V/Q ratio is?

Accepted Answer

1

Answer

0.8

Answer

2

Answer

3

Question 8

In an ECG the cardiac event corresponding to the ST segment is:

Accepted Answer

Ventricular repolarisation

Answer

Atrial depolarisation

Answer

Ventricular depolarisation

Answer

Atrial repolarisation

Question 9

Isocapnic buffering is?

Accepted Answer

Normal pCO2 with increased CO2

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Increased pCO2 with increased CO2

Answer

Increased pCO2 with decreased CO2

Question 10

What does the transient response observed during the insertion of an electrode in electromyography (EMG) indicate?

Accepted Answer

Cell membrane disruption

Answer

Spontaneous muscle activity

Answer

Voluntary muscle contraction

Answer

Induced muscle contraction

NEET-PG 2015

Biochemistry

Forensic Medicine

Pathology

Pharmacology

Physiology