NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which type of glial cell is derived from mesodermal origin?

Microglial cells. ***Microglial cells*** - **Microglial cells** are unique among glial cells as they originate from **mesoderm**, specifically from **monocyte/macrophage precursors** in the bone marrow [1]. - They function as the **immune cells of the central nervous system (CNS)**, scavenging for plaques, damaged neurons, and infectious agents [1]. *Macroglial cells* - This is a broad category that includes **astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells**, all of which are derived from **neuroectoderm**, not mesoderm [1]. - They perform various supportive roles but are distinct in origin from microglial cells [1]. *Oligodendrocytes* - **Oligodendrocytes** are derived from **neuroectoderm** and are responsible for forming the **myelin sheath** around axons in the CNS [2]. - Myelination is crucial for rapid and efficient nerve impulse conduction. *Ependymal cells* - **Ependymal cells** are derived from **neuroectoderm** and line the **ventricles of the brain** and the **central canal of the spinal cord**. - They play a role in the production and circulation of **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**.

Q: Blood testis barrier in testis is formed by?

Sertoli cells. ***Sertoli cells*** - **Sertoli cells** form tight junctions with each other, creating the **blood-testis barrier** [1] - This barrier divides the seminiferous epithelium into **basal and adluminal compartments** [1] - Essential for protecting developing **germ cells** from immune attack and maintaining a specialized microenvironment for **spermatogenesis** [1] - The tight junctions between Sertoli cells are among the tightest in the human body *Granulosa cells* - **Granulosa cells** are found in the **ovary**, not the testis - They surround the oocyte in ovarian follicles and produce **estrogen** - Completely unrelated to testicular structure or function *Germ cells* - **Germ cells** (spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa) are the developing sperm cells [1] - They are **protected by** the blood-testis barrier, not forming it [1] - Located within the seminiferous tubules but do not create barrier structures [1] *Leydig cells* - **Leydig cells** are interstitial cells located in the connective tissue **between seminiferous tubules** - Their primary function is production of **testosterone**, not forming barriers [2] - They are outside the seminiferous tubules and not involved in barrier formation [2]

Q: Which of the following is not a metabolic product of the urea cycle?

Alanine. ***Alanine*** - **Alanine** is an amino acid primarily involved in the **glucose-alanine cycle** for glucose production and ammonia transport, not as a direct metabolic product within the urea cycle. - While it plays a role in nitrogen metabolism, it is not synthesized or directly consumed as an intermediate in the reactions that convert ammonia to urea. *Citrulline* - **Citrulline** is a key intermediate formed during the second step of the urea cycle when **ornithine carbamoyltransferase** combines carbamoyl phosphate with ornithine. - It is then transported out of the mitochondrion into the cytosol to continue the cycle. *Ornithine* - **Ornithine** is an amino acid that acts as a **catalytic intermediate** in the urea cycle, being regenerated at the end of the cycle to combine with carbamoyl phosphate. - It does not directly contribute a nitrogen atom to urea but is essential for the cycle's continuation. *Arginine* - **Arginine** is an amino acid that is a direct precursor to urea in the penultimate step of the urea cycle, where **arginase** cleaves it into urea and ornithine. - It provides one of the nitrogen atoms and the carbon atom for the formation of urea.

Q: Most important carbohydrate store for maintaining blood glucose homeostasis -

Hepatic glycogen. ***Hepatic glycogen*** - The liver contains **100-120g of glycogen**, which is the most crucial carbohydrate store for **maintaining blood glucose homeostasis**. - **Hepatic glycogen** can be mobilized and released as glucose into the bloodstream to supply all body tissues, especially during fasting. - Although muscle glycogen is quantitatively larger (~400-500g), it cannot contribute to blood glucose as muscle lacks glucose-6-phosphatase. - The liver's unique ability to release free glucose makes hepatic glycogen the **most metabolically important** carbohydrate store. *Blood glucose* - **Blood glucose** (~5g total in circulation) represents carbohydrates available for immediate energy, not a storage form. - This is far too small to be considered a major carbohydrate reserve. *Glycogen in adipose tissue* - **Adipose tissue** primarily stores **fat (triglycerides)**, with negligible glycogen content. - Adipose tissue plays virtually no role in carbohydrate storage. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **hepatic glycogen** is indeed the most important carbohydrate store for glucose homeostasis.

Q: Enzyme activity is expressed as?

Micromoles/min. ***Micromoles/min*** - Enzyme activity is typically measured by the rate at which an enzyme converts its **substrate into product**. - This rate is often expressed as the amount of product formed (e.g., **micromoles**) or substrate consumed per unit of time (e.g., **per minute**). *Millimoles/lit* - This unit expresses **concentration** (moles per liter) rather than a rate of reaction. - While enzyme reactions involve changes in substrate/product concentration, this unit alone does not describe the **activity or catalytic speed** of the enzyme. *Milli gm/lit* - This unit also expresses **concentration by mass** (milligrams per liter), not enzyme activity. - It does not account for the **time-dependent nature** of enzyme catalysis or the molar quantity of reactants/products. *Mg/dl* - This unit represents **concentration by mass** (milligrams per deciliter), commonly used for measuring substances like glucose or cholesterol in blood. - It is not appropriate for expressing the **catalytic rate or activity** of an enzyme.

Q: Which of the following statements about NADP is correct?

Involved in HMP shunt. ***Involved in HMP shunt*** - **NADPH**, the reduced form of NADP+, is primarily generated in the **hexose monophosphate shunt (HMP shunt)**, specifically during the oxidative phase. - The NADPH produced in the HMP shunt is crucial for **reductive biosynthesis** reactions and maintaining the **redox balance** of the cell. *Acts as a coenzyme form of Riboflavin* - **NADP is derived from Niacin (Vitamin B3)**, not Riboflavin (Vitamin B2). - **Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)** and **flavin mononucleotide (FMN)** are the coenzyme forms of Riboflavin. *Involved in glycolysis* - **NADP is not directly involved in glycolysis**; instead, **NAD+** is the primary coenzyme that accepts electrons in glycolysis, specifically during the oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. - While some enzymes in glycolysis can interact with NADP+ under specific conditions, its main role is not within the glycolytic pathway. *Involved in fatty acid oxidation* - **Fatty acid oxidation (beta-oxidation)** primarily utilizes **NAD+** and **FAD** as electron acceptors. - **NADP+** is not a direct participant in the electron transport chain during fatty acid breakdown.

Q: Unfolded protein metabolism is associated with

Endoplasmic reticulum. ***Endoplasmic reticulum*** - The **endoplasmic reticulum (ER)** is the primary site for protein folding, modification, and assembly, especially for secreted and transmembrane proteins. - When misfolded proteins accumulate, the ER triggers the **unfolded protein response (UPR)** to restore homeostasis or induce apoptosis. *Golgi apparatus* - The Golgi apparatus is primarily involved in **further processing**, sorting, and packaging of proteins and lipids synthesized in the ER. - It does not directly manage the initial folding of proteins or the response to widespread protein misfolding. *Mitochondria* - **Mitochondria** are known for their role in **energy production** (ATP synthesis) through cellular respiration. - While they possess their own protein synthesis machinery for some essential mitochondrial proteins, they are not involved in the overall cellular management of unfolded protein metabolism from the ER.

Q: IgA nephropathy is not associated with which of the following?

Decreased complement level. ***Decreased complement level*** - IgA nephropathy is typically associated with **normal serum complement levels** (C3 and C4), which is an important distinguishing feature. - Unlike post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis or lupus nephritis where complement levels are **low/decreased**, IgA nephropathy does not cause systemic complement consumption. - While complement activation does occur locally in the glomerulus (via lectin and alternative pathways), it does not lead to a decrease in serum complement levels. *Focal mesangial proliferation* - This is a **common histological finding** in IgA nephropathy, reflecting the proliferative response to IgA deposition in the mesangium. - The mesangial cells proliferate in an attempt to clear the immune deposits. *Gross hematuria concurrent with upper respiratory infection* - This is a **classic clinical presentation** of IgA nephropathy, often referred to as **synpharyngitic hematuria**. - The episode of gross hematuria typically occurs **within 1-2 days** of the onset of an upper respiratory tract infection, distinguishing it from post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis where hematuria appears 1-3 weeks later. *Immunofluorescence deposits contain IgA and IgG* - The defining feature of IgA nephropathy on immunofluorescence is the **predominant deposition of IgA**, often accompanied by C3. - While IgA is the primary immunoglobulin, **IgG and IgM can also be present** in variable amounts, but IgA must be the dominant or co-dominant immunoglobulin for the diagnosis.

Q: Alkaline diuresis in drug poisoning is not done in?

Morphine. ***Morphine*** - **Morphine** is an **alkaline drug**, so its elimination is actually enhanced by **acidification of the urine**, not alkalinization. - Alkaline diuresis would decrease the ionization of morphine in the renal tubules, leading to **increased reabsorption** and reduced excretion. *Aspirin* - **Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)** is an **acidic drug**, and **alkaline diuresis** is effective in increasing its excretion by trapping the ionized form in the renal tubules. - This process prevents reabsorption and promotes clearance, which is a standard treatment for aspirin overdose. *Methotrexate* - **Methotrexate** is a **weak organic acid**, and **alkaline diuresis** is crucial in reducing its toxicity, especially in high-dose therapy. - By increasing urine pH, the renal elimination of methotrexate is significantly enhanced, preventing kidney damage and systemic accumulation. *Phenobarbitone* - **Phenobarbitone** is a **weak acid**, and **alkaline diuresis** is a well-established method to increase its renal excretion in cases of overdose. - Alkalinization of the urine promotes the ionization of phenobarbitone, reducing its reabsorption by the renal tubules and accelerating its elimination.

Q: Which of the following receptors is stimulated by sustained pressure?

Ruffini's end organ. ***Ruffini's end organ*** - These are **slowly adapting mechanoreceptors** located deep in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. - They are responsible for detecting **sustained pressure**, stretch, and position sense. *Merkel's disc* - These are **slowly adapting mechanoreceptors** found in the basal epidermis. - They are crucial for sensing **light touch** and **two-point discrimination**. *Hair cells* - These are **mechanoreceptors** primarily found in the inner ear, responsible for hearing and balance. - They are not involved in the perception of somatosensory stimuli like pressure on the skin. *Meissner Corpuscles* - These are **rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors** located in the dermal papillae, close to the skin surface. - They are primarily involved in detecting **light touch** and **discriminative touch**, especially changes in texture.

Question 1

Which type of glial cell is derived from mesodermal origin?

Accepted Answer

Microglial cells

Answer

Macroglial cells

Answer

Oligodendrocytes

Answer

Ependymal cells

Question 2

Blood testis barrier in testis is formed by?

Accepted Answer

Sertoli cells

Answer

Germ cells

Answer

Leydig cells

Answer

Granulosa cells

Question 3

Which of the following is not a metabolic product of the urea cycle?

Accepted Answer

Alanine

Answer

Citrulline

Answer

Arginine

Answer

Ornithine

Question 4

Most important carbohydrate store for maintaining blood glucose homeostasis -

Accepted Answer

Hepatic glycogen

Answer

Blood glucose

Answer

Glycogen in adipose tissue

Answer

None of the options

Question 5

Enzyme activity is expressed as?

Accepted Answer

Micromoles/min

Answer

Millimoles/lit

Answer

Milli gm/lit

Answer

Mg/dl

Question 6

Which of the following statements about NADP is correct?

Accepted Answer

Involved in HMP shunt

Answer

Involved in fatty acid oxidation

Answer

Involved in glycolysis

Answer

Acts as a coenzyme form of Riboflavin

Question 7

Unfolded protein metabolism is associated with

Accepted Answer

Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer

Golgi apparatus

Answer

Mitochondria

Question 8

IgA nephropathy is not associated with which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Decreased complement level

Answer

Focal mesangial proliferation

Answer

Gross hematuria concurrent with upper respiratory infection

Answer

Immunofluorescence deposits contain IgA and IgG

Question 9

Alkaline diuresis in drug poisoning is not done in?

Accepted Answer

Morphine

Answer

Aspirin

Answer

Phenobarbitone

Answer

Methotrexate

Question 10

Which of the following receptors is stimulated by sustained pressure?

Accepted Answer

Ruffini's end organ

Answer

Merkel's disc

Answer

Hair cells

Answer

Meissner Corpuscles

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Pathology

Pharmacology

Physiology