NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: A 55 years old male with a known history of gallstones presents with chief complaints of severe abdominal pain and elevated levels of serum lipase with periumbilical ecchymosis. All of the following are prognostic criteria to predict the severity of acute pancreatitis except:

Serum GGT. ***Serum GGT*** - **Serum GGT (gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase)** is primarily used to evaluate liver and bile duct function and cholestasis, not as a direct prognostic indicator for acute pancreatitis severity. - While gallstones are mentioned, GGT elevation in this context would suggest the cause of pancreatitis rather than its severity. *Age* - **Age older than 55 years** is a significant prognostic factor in various scoring systems like Ranson's criteria and the APACHE II score, indicating a higher risk of severe disease and complications [1]. - Older patients generally have less physiologic reserve and are more prone to organ failure during severe pancreatitis [1]. *Serum LDH* - **Elevated serum LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)**, specifically above 350 IU/L, is one of Ranson's criteria for assessing the severity of acute pancreatitis within the first 48 hours. - It suggests significant tissue damage and necrosis, which correlates with worse outcomes. *Base deficit* - A **base deficit greater than 4 mEq/L** is an indicator of metabolic acidosis and is included in prognostic scoring systems for acute pancreatitis, such as the modified Glasgow criteria. - It reflects poor tissue perfusion, hypovolemia, and potentially severe systemic inflammation.

Q: Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis is:

Chlamydia. ***Chlamydia*** - **Chlamydia trachomatis** is a commonly identified pathogen causing **genitourinary infections** that can trigger reactive arthritis [1]. - The organism itself is not present in the joint, but its antigens trigger an immune response leading to sterile arthritis [1]. *Staphylococcus* - **Staphylococcus aureus** is a common cause of septic arthritis, which involves direct bacterial invasion of the joint. - Reactive arthritis is a **sterile arthritis** triggered by an infection elsewhere, not directly caused by staphylococcal joint infection. *Shigella* - While **Shigella** is a known enteric pathogen that can trigger reactive arthritis, it is less commonly associated with the condition globally compared to Chlamydia [1]. - Reactive arthritis often follows episodes of **dysentery** caused by Shigella species [1]. *Yersinia* - **Yersinia enterocolitica** is another enteric bacterium that can induce reactive arthritis, typically after **gastrointestinal infections**. - Its prevalence as a trigger for reactive arthritis is generally lower than that of Chlamydia.

Q: Therapeutic phlebotomy is not done in which of the following conditions?

CML. CML - **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)** is typically treated with targeted therapies like **Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors** (e.g., Imatinib), not phlebotomy [1]. - Therapeutic phlebotomy is ineffective in managing the **hypercellularity** or symptoms associated with this condition compared to other conditions [1]. *Polycythemia vera* - Therapeutic phlebotomy is a key treatment in **Polycythemia vera** to reduce **hyperviscosity** symptoms. - This condition features increased red blood cell mass, which is directly addressed by phlebotomy. *Hemochromatosis* - In **Hemochromatosis**, phlebotomy is employed to lower **iron overload** by removing excess iron from the body. - This reduces the risk of complications such as **liver cirrhosis** and **diabetes** associated with iron excess. *Porphyria cutanea tarda* - Therapeutic phlebotomy is sometimes used in cases of **Porphyria cutanea tarda** to manage iron levels as a potential precipitating factor [2]. - It helps alleviate symptoms and prevent complications associated with **photosensitivity** and skin lesions [2].

Q: Tinel's sign is seen in which of the following conditions?

Carpal tunnel syndrome. ***Carpal tunnel syndrome*** - **Tinel's sign** is elicited by lightly tapping over the median nerve at the wrist, which in carpal tunnel syndrome, reproduces tingling or pain in the median nerve distribution [1]. - This sign indicates **nerve compression** or irritation at the carpal tunnel, a hallmark of the condition [1]. *Avascular necrosis of scaphoid* - This condition involves **bone death** due to interrupted blood supply, leading to pain and reduced range of motion, but not nerve irritation. - Diagnosis is typically made with **imaging studies** like MRI, not by neurological signs like Tinel's. *Kienbock's Disease* - This is a form of **avascular necrosis of the lunate bone**, causing wrist pain and stiffness. - It does not involve nerve compression and therefore **Tinel's sign** would not be expected. *1st carpometacarpal joint arthritis* - This condition affects the **joint at the base of the thumb**, causing localized pain and stiffness during gripping or pinching. - Symptoms are related to **joint degeneration**, not nerve impingement, so Tinel's sign is not relevant.

Q: After a road traffic accident, a patient presented to casualty with vitals showing BP of 90/60 mm Hg and heart rate of 56 bpm. Which kind of shock occurs?

Neurogenic. ***Neurogenic*** - This patient presents with **hypotension** (BP 90/60 mm Hg) and **bradycardia** (heart rate 56 bpm), which is a classic presentation of neurogenic shock due to **loss of sympathetic tone** following a spinal cord injury [2]. - The road traffic accident suggests a potential **spinal cord injury**, leading to disruption of the autonomic nervous system's control over heart rate and vascular tone. *Cardiogenic* - Cardiogenic shock is characterized by **hypotension** and **tachycardia**, often due to the heart's inability to pump blood effectively, such as in a myocardial infarction [1]. - The reported **bradycardia** in this patient makes cardiogenic shock unlikely. *Hypovolemic shock* - Hypovolemic shock results from significant **fluid loss**, leading to **hypotension** and a compensatory **tachycardia**. - The presence of **bradycardia** rules out hypovolemic shock, as the body would typically try to increase heart rate to compensate for volume depletion. *Septic shock* - Septic shock is caused by a severe **infection**, leading to widespread vasodilation, **hypotension**, and often **tachycardia** with signs of systemic inflammation. - There is no indication of infection, and the **bradycardia** is inconsistent with the typical presentation of septic shock.

Q: A 65 year old female presents with a swelling in the neck diagnosed as a solitary thyroid nodule. The patient is investigated and a scan shows increased uptake of iodine. Serum T3 and T4 are elevated . Most probabe diagnosis is

Solitary Toxic Adenoma. A **solitary toxic adenoma** is a single thyroid nodule that autonomously produces thyroid hormones, leading to **hyperthyroidism**. The increased iodine uptake on scan reflects its hyperfunctional state, and elevated **T3/T4** confirms hyperthyroidism. [2] - The combination of a **solitary nodule**, **increased iodine uptake**, and **elevated thyroid hormone levels** is pathognomonic for a solitary toxic adenoma. [2] *Benign Thyroid Nodule* - A **benign thyroid nodule** without hyperfunction would typically show **normal or decreased iodine uptake** and **normal T3/T4** levels. [2] - While benign, such a nodule alone does not explain the **elevated T3/T4** or **increased iodine uptake**. *Follicular Carcinoma* - **Follicular carcinoma** is a type of thyroid cancer that typically presents as a **cold nodule** (decreased iodine uptake) and is usually **non-functional**, meaning it does not cause hyperthyroidism with elevated T3/T4. [2] - The presence of **increased iodine uptake** and **hyperthyroidism** makes follicular carcinoma highly unlikely. *Toxic Multinodular Goiter* - A **toxic multinodular goiter** involves **multiple nodules**, not a solitary one, that are autonomously functional and cause hyperthyroidism. [1] - While it causes **hyperthyroidism** and **increased iodine uptake**, the key differentiating factor here is the presentation as a **solitary nodule**.

Q: All of the following are features of Zollinger Ellison syndrome except:

Beta cell tumours of the pancreas. ***Beta cell tumours of the pancreas*** - Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) is caused by **gastrinomas**, which are **neuroendocrine tumors** that typically arise from the **gastrin-producing G cells**, not the insulin-producing beta cells, of the pancreas or duodenum. - While pancreatic tumors are common in ZES, they are specifically **gastrinomas**, leading to excessive gastrin secretion. *Severe diarrhoea* - This is a common feature of ZES resulting from the **high acid output** reaching the small intestine. - The excessive acid inactivates pancreatic lipase, leading to **maldigestion** and stimulates fluid and electrolyte secretion, causing secretory diarrhea. *Very high acid output* - ZES is characterized by the **overproduction of gastrin**, which stimulates the parietal cells of the stomach to secrete large amounts of **hydrochloric acid**. - This leads to a significantly **increased basal and maximal acid output** in the stomach. *Intractable peptic ulcers* - The extremely high gastric acid secretion in ZES causes **multiple, recurrent, and often refractory peptic ulcers**, which can be located in atypical sites such as the jejunum. - These ulcers are typically difficult to treat with standard anti-ulcer medications due to the persistent gastric hypersecretion.

Q: Sausage finger appearance is associated with which of the following conditions?

Psoriatic arthritis. ***Psoriatic arthritis*** - **Dactylitis**, or "sausage finger," is a characteristic inflammatory finding in psoriatic arthritis, resulting from inflammation of the **entire digit** [1]. - This condition involves inflammation of tendons, joints, and soft tissues which leads to diffuse swelling of fingers or toes [1]. *Rickets* - Rickets is a bone-softening disease in children caused by **vitamin D deficiency**, leading to bone deformities like bowed legs or widened wrists. - It does not present with inflammatory dactylitis or "sausage digits." *Hyperthyroidism* - Hyperthyroidism is a condition of excessive thyroid hormone production, which can cause symptoms like **tremors**, **tachycardia**, and **weight loss** [2]. - It is not associated with dactylitis or changes in finger morphology. *Addison's disease* - Addison's disease results from **adrenal insufficiency**, leading to symptoms like **fatigue**, **skin hyperpigmentation**, and hypotension. - There is no clinical association between Addison's disease and "sausage finger" appearance.

Q: A 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Sarcoidosis. ***Sarcoidosis*** - The constellation of **bilateral hilar adenopathy**, pulmonary infiltrates (especially in upper/mid zones), **arthralgia** (knees and ankles), and a **negative Mantoux test** in a patient with unexplained fever and malaise is highly suggestive of sarcoidosis [1]. - A **raised ESR** is a non-specific inflammatory marker often seen in sarcoidosis. *Tuberculosis* - While tuberculosis can cause fever, malaise, pulmonary infiltrates, and elevated ESR, a **negative Mantoux test** makes primary or active tuberculosis less likely in an immunocompetent individual. - **Bilateral hilar adenopathy** is also less typical of primary pulmonary tuberculosis compared to sarcoidosis. *Asbestosis* - This is an **occupational lung disease** caused by asbestos exposure, primarily presenting with **progressive dyspnea** and **restrictive lung disease**. - It characteristically involves the **lower lobes**, causes **pleural plaques**, and is not typically associated with acute arthralgia, fever, or prominent hilar adenopathy. *Berylliosis* - This is another **occupational lung disease** resulting from beryllium exposure, often mimicking sarcoidosis both clinically and pathologically [2]. - However, without a history of **beryllium exposure** and given the classic presentation, sarcoidosis is a more prevalent default diagnosis [2].

Q: Which of the following syndromes is least likely to be associated with obesity?

Sipple syndrome. ***Sipple syndrome*** - Sipple syndrome, also known as **multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2**, is primarily associated with **medullary thyroid carcinoma** and does not typically correlate with obesity. - It includes signs like **pheochromocytoma** and **hyperparathyroidism**, but obesity is not a prominent feature. *Cushing syndrome* - Cushing syndrome leads to **excess cortisol**, commonly resulting in weight gain and central obesity [1]. - Characteristic features include **moon facies**, **buffalo hump**, and easy bruising, all associated with obesity [1]. *Pickwinian syndrome* - Pickwinian syndrome, characterized by **severe obesity**, is a condition primarily affecting physical stature and weight. - It is linked to **hypoventilation** and sleep apnea, reinforcing the presence of obesity. *Prader willi syndrome* - Prader-Willi syndrome is marked by **insatiable hunger** leading to **obesity** due to hypothalamic dysfunction [2]. - Individuals with this condition also demonstrate **hypotonia** and developmental delays, commonly accompanied by obesity [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1127-1129. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Central Nervous System Synapse, pp. 454-455.

Question 1

A 55 years old male with a known history of gallstones presents with chief complaints of severe abdominal pain and elevated levels of serum lipase with periumbilical ecchymosis. All of the following are prognostic criteria to predict the severity of acute pancreatitis except:

Accepted Answer

Serum GGT

Answer

Serum LDH

Answer

Base deficit

Answer

Age

Question 2

Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis is:

Accepted Answer

Chlamydia

Answer

Staphylococcus

Answer

Shigella

Answer

Yersinia

Question 3

Therapeutic phlebotomy is not done in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

CML

Answer

Polycythemia vera

Answer

Hemochromatosis

Answer

Porphyria cutanea tarda

Question 4

Tinel's sign is seen in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Answer

Avascular necrosis of scaphoid

Answer

Kienbock's Disease

Answer

1st carpometacarpal joint arthritis

Question 5

After a road traffic accident, a patient presented to casualty with vitals showing BP of 90/60 mm Hg and heart rate of 56 bpm. Which kind of shock occurs?

Accepted Answer

Neurogenic

Answer

Cardiogenic

Answer

Hypovolemic shock

Answer

Septic shock

Question 6

A 65 year old female presents with a swelling in the neck diagnosed as a solitary thyroid nodule. The patient is investigated and a scan shows increased uptake of iodine. Serum T3 and T4 are elevated . Most probabe diagnosis is

Accepted Answer

Solitary Toxic Adenoma

Answer

Benign Thyroid Nodule

Answer

Follicular Carcinoma

Answer

Toxic Multinodular Goiter

Question 7

All of the following are features of Zollinger Ellison syndrome except:

Accepted Answer

Beta cell tumours of the pancreas

Answer

Severe diarrhoea

Answer

Very high acid output

Answer

Intractable peptic ulcers

Question 8

Sausage finger appearance is associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Psoriatic arthritis

Answer

Rickets

Answer

Hyperthyroidism

Answer

Addison's disease

Question 9

A 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Asbestosis

Answer

Berylliosis

Question 10

Which of the following syndromes is least likely to be associated with obesity?

Accepted Answer

Sipple syndrome

Answer

Cushing syndrome

Answer

Prader willi syndrome

Answer

Pickwickian syndrome

NEET-PG 2015 — Internal Medicine