NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: What is the most common cause of hydrops fetalis in current medical practice?

Cardiac malformations. ***Cardiac malformations*** - **Cardiovascular abnormalities** are the **most common cause** of **non-immune hydrops fetalis** in current medical practice, accounting for **20-40%** of cases - Includes **structural heart defects** (septal defects, valvular abnormalities) and **arrhythmias** (supraventricular tachycardia, complete heart block) - These conditions lead to **heart failure** and **increased hydrostatic pressure**, causing fluid accumulation in fetal tissues and body cavities - With the near-elimination of Rh disease through immunoprophylaxis, cardiac causes have emerged as the leading etiology *Chromosomal abnormalities* - Account for **10-20%** of non-immune hydrops cases - **Turner syndrome (45,X)** is the most common chromosomal cause, associated with **cystic hygroma** and **lymphatic dysgenesis** - Other chromosomal conditions include **trisomy 21, 18, and 13**, which can cause hydrops through associated cardiac defects or other mechanisms - While significant, chromosomal causes are less common than cardiovascular causes overall *Fetal infections (e.g., parvovirus B19)* - Infections account for **5-10%** of non-immune hydrops cases - **Parvovirus B19** is the most common infectious cause, leading to severe **fetal anemia** through bone marrow suppression - Other infectious agents include **CMV**, **toxoplasmosis**, and **syphilis** - The TORCH screening helps identify treatable infectious causes *Rh incompatibility (historically significant)* - Historically the **leading cause** before the 1970s, accounting for most hydrops cases - Now accounts for **<10%** of cases due to routine **Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)** administration at 28 weeks and postpartum - Causes **immune hydrops** through maternal antibodies crossing the placenta and destroying fetal red blood cells, leading to severe anemia and heart failure - Still important in under-immunized populations or cases of missed prophylaxis

Q: Which of the following is associated with macrosomia?

Gestational diabetes mellitus. ***Gestational diabetes mellitus*** - **Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)** is a common cause of macrosomia because high maternal glucose levels lead to increased fetal insulin production, which promotes growth and fat deposition. - The **hyperglycemic environment** in GDM stimulates fetal overgrowth, resulting in larger-than-average babies. *Hypothyroidism* - **Maternal hypothyroidism** is typically associated with **fetal growth restriction** and lower birth weight, not macrosomia. - Undiagnosed or poorly controlled hypothyroidism can lead to complications such as **preterm labor** and **preeclampsia**, but not increased fetal size. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **gestational diabetes mellitus** is directly associated with macrosomia. - There is a clear and well-documented link between maternal hyperglycemia and increased fetal growth. *Maternal anemia* - **Maternal anemia**, especially severe anemia, is generally associated with an **increased risk of fetal growth restriction** and **low birth weight**. - Anemia limits oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus, thereby hindering optimal growth.

Q: Upper segment to lower segment ratio in a 3-year-old child is:

1.3:1. ***1.3:1*** - At birth, the upper segment to lower segment ratio is around **1.7:1**, indicating proportionally longer trunks. - By the age of **3 years**, this ratio typically decreases to approximately **1.3:1** as the lower limbs grow more rapidly. *1.2:1* - This ratio is typically observed in **older children** or young adults, as lower limb growth catches up further. - A ratio of 1.2:1 would suggest more **proportional body segments** than expected for a 3-year-old child. *1.4:1* - This ratio is closer to that of a **younger infant** or toddler, as the lower segments are still relatively shorter. - A 3-year-old would generally have experienced more **lower limb growth**, reducing this ratio further. *1.6:1* - This ratio is characteristic of a **newborn or very young infant**, where the upper body and head are significantly larger relative to the legs. - It would be **abnormal** for a 3-year-old to still have such a high ratio, indicating a disproportional growth pattern.

Q: Which of the following cancers has the highest cure rate?

Retinoblastoma. ***Retinoblastoma*** - This **childhood eye cancer** has an excellent prognosis, with a reported cure rate of **over 95%** when diagnosed early and treated promptly. - Treatment options like **chemotherapy**, **radiation**, **laser therapy**, and **enucleation** contribute to its high survival rate. *Wilm's Tumor* - While **Wilm's tumor** (nephroblastoma) also has a high cure rate in children, typically **around 90%**, it is slightly lower than that of retinoblastoma. - It is a **kidney cancer** primarily affecting children and is highly responsive to treatment. *Rhabdomyosarcoma* - The cure rate for **rhabdomyosarcoma**, a rare and aggressive cancer of the soft tissues, varies significantly based on factors like **tumor location**, **stage**, and **histology**. - Overall survival rates are generally lower than for retinoblastoma and Wilm's tumor, often ranging from **60-70%**. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because while all three cancers listed have good prognoses, **retinoblastoma** specifically stands out with the highest cure rate among them. - The cure rates for Wilm's tumor and rhabdomyosarcoma, while good, are not as high as that for retinoblastoma.

Q: A 30-week preterm neonate is admitted to NICU immediately after birth. Which of the following complications is MOST directly related to surfactant deficiency?

Increased risk of respiratory distress syndrome. ***Increased risk of respiratory distress syndrome*** - RDS is **most directly caused by surfactant deficiency** in preterm infants, as surfactant production begins around 24-28 weeks and becomes adequate only by 34-36 weeks of gestation. - Surfactant reduces **surface tension in alveoli**, preventing alveolar collapse during expiration. Without adequate surfactant, there is diffuse atelectasis and impaired gas exchange. - Clinical features include **tachypnea, grunting, intercostal retractions, and cyanosis** typically appearing within the first few hours of life. - Chest X-ray shows characteristic **ground-glass appearance with air bronchograms**. *Increased risk of hypothermia* - While preterm infants are indeed at risk for hypothermia due to **large surface area-to-body mass ratio, reduced brown fat, and immature thermoregulation**, this is not directly related to surfactant deficiency. - Hypothermia is primarily related to **thermal regulation mechanisms** rather than lung maturity. *Increased risk of hypoglycemia* - Preterm babies have **limited glycogen stores and immature gluconeogenesis**, increasing hypoglycemia risk. - However, this is related to **metabolic and hepatic immaturity**, not surfactant deficiency. *Increased risk of intraventricular hemorrhage* - Preterm infants are at risk for IVH due to **fragile germinal matrix capillaries and fluctuating cerebral blood flow**. - This is a **neurovascular complication**, not directly related to surfactant deficiency, though severe RDS with hypoxia can be a contributing factor.

Q: Which of the following is a common symptom of neonatal lupus?

Cutaneous lesion. ***Cutaneous lesion*** - **Cutaneous lesions** are the most common manifestation of neonatal lupus, typically appearing as an **annular erythematous rash** on the face and scalp. - These lesions often develop after exposure to **ultraviolet light** and usually resolve within 6 months as maternal autoantibodies clear from the infant's system. *Thrombocytopenia* - While **hematologic abnormalities** such as thrombocytopenia can occur in neonatal lupus, they are less common than cutaneous lesions. - **Thrombocytopenia** refers to a low platelet count, which can increase the risk of bleeding. *All of the options* - While all listed options (cutaneous lesions, thrombocytopenia, and heart block) can be features of neonatal lupus, **cutaneous lesions** are the most frequently observed symptom. - Choosing "All of the options" would imply equal commonality or presence of all in every case, which is not accurate. *Heart block* - **Congenital heart block** is a serious, but less common and often irreversible, manifestation of neonatal lupus, caused by maternal antibodies attacking the fetal cardiac conduction system. - It usually presents as **bradycardia** and may require a pacemaker, but it is not the most common symptom overall.

Q: Which hormone surge indicates the fertile period in females?

LH. ***LH*** - The **luteinizing hormone (LH) surge** triggers **ovulation**, releasing a mature egg from the follicle. - This surge is a key indicator of the **fertile window** in a woman's menstrual cycle. *FSH* - **Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** primarily stimulates the growth and development of **ovarian follicles** early in the menstrual cycle, prior to the fertile period. - While essential for follicle maturation, it does not directly signal the immediate fertile window or ovulation. *Estrogen* - **Estrogen levels peak** just before the LH surge, playing a role in triggering the surge itself through positive feedback. - However, estrogen itself does not directly indicate the onset of the fertile period; rather, the subsequent LH surge does. *Oxytocin* - **Oxytocin** is largely involved in processes like **uterine contractions during childbirth** and **milk ejection during lactation**. - It has no direct role in indicating a female's fertile period or timing of ovulation.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of LEOPARD syndrome?

Hypergonadism. ***Hypergonadism*** - **LEOPARD syndrome** is characterized by **hypogonadism** (underdevelopment or dysfunction of the gonads) and delayed puberty, not hypergonadism. - The acronym LEOPARD stands for multiple clinical features which include **L**entigines, **E**CG conduction abnormalities, **O**cular hypertelorism, **P**ulmonary stenosis, **A**bnormal genitalia, **R**etardation of growth, and **D**eafness. *Growth retardation* - **Retardation of growth** is a defining characteristic of LEOPARD syndrome, often manifesting as short stature. - This is part of the "R" in the LEOPARD acronym, indicating a failure to achieve normal growth milestones. *ECG changes* - **ECG conduction abnormalities** (such as prolonged PR interval, bundle branch block, or Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome) are primary diagnostic features. - These cardiac issues can be significant and contribute to the morbidity associated with the syndrome. *Hypertelorism* - **Ocular hypertelorism**, meaning widely spaced eyes, is a common facial dysmorphism found in individuals with LEOPARD syndrome. - This feature is represented by the "O" in the LEOPARD acronym, along with other craniofacial anomalies. *Lentigines* - **Lentigines** are multiple pigmented macules (small, flat, darkened spots) that are the hallmark dermatologic feature of LEOPARD syndrome. - These represent the "L" in the LEOPARD acronym and are typically present from early childhood, increasing in number with age.

Q: Which of the following conditions characteristically causes bilateral hypertranslucency of lung fields on chest X-ray?

Emphysema. ***Correct: Emphysema*** - **Emphysema** causes destruction of alveolar walls, leading to enlarged air spaces and **air trapping**, making both lungs appear hypertranslucent on X-ray - This **bilateral hypertranslucency** is due to reduced lung tissue density, decreased vascular markings, and increased air volume - Classic radiographic features include flattened diaphragms, increased retrosternal space, and hyperlucent lung fields *Incorrect: Mcleod syndrome* - Also known as **Swyer–James–MacLeod syndrome**, this condition causes **unilateral** lung or lobe hyperlucency due to post-infectious obliterative bronchiolitis - The key differentiating feature is that it's **unilateral**, whereas the question asks for bilateral hypertranslucency - Affected lung shows air trapping on expiratory films *Incorrect: Pneumothorax* - A **pneumothorax** presents as a **unilateral** or focal hypertranslucent area due to air in the pleural space - Characterized by **absence of lung markings** beyond the visceral pleural line and associated lung collapse - This is a pleural space abnormality, not a bilateral parenchymal lung disease *Incorrect: Poland syndrome* - **Poland syndrome** is a congenital condition with absence or underdevelopment of the pectoralis major muscle - Can lead to **unilateral** apparent hyperlucency on the affected side due to missing chest wall muscle - This is a **chest wall anomaly**, not a parenchymal lung disease causing bilateral hypertranslucency

Q: What is the investigation of choice for detecting recurrence after parathyroid gland surgery?

Sestamibi scan. ***Sestamibi scan*** - A **sestamibi scan** is the investigation of choice for **localizing recurrent or persistent hyperparathyroidism** because **parathyroid tissue preferentially retains the tracer** longer than thyroid tissue. - This nuclear medicine imaging technique helps identify ectopic or very small parathyroid adenomas, which may be difficult to locate with other methods. *SPECT* - **Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)** can be used as an adjunct to a sestamibi scan (SPECT-Sestamibi) to provide 3D images and improve localization, but it is typically not the initial or standalone investigation of choice for recurrence. - While SPECT offers increased sensitivity and specificity over planar imaging by removing superimposed structures, the **sestamibi uptake itself is the crucial diagnostic marker**. *MRI* - **Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)** is generally used for detailed anatomical assessment of the neck and mediastinum, especially if there's concern for **ectopic glands or complex anatomy**. - However, it is less sensitive than sestamibi for detecting small or recurrent hyperactive parathyroid tissue due to its reliance on anatomical rather than functional abnormalities. *Neck ultrasound* - **Neck ultrasound** is an excellent initial imaging modality for primary hyperparathyroidism due to its **affordability and ability to visualize cervical parathyroid glands**. - For detecting recurrence, its utility is limited, especially in cases of **ectopic glands** (e.g., in the mediastinum) or if scar tissue hinders clear visualization.

Question 1

What is the most common cause of hydrops fetalis in current medical practice?

Accepted Answer

Cardiac malformations

Answer

Fetal infections (e.g., parvovirus B19)

Answer

Chromosomal abnormalities

Answer

Rh incompatibility (historically significant)

Question 2

Which of the following is associated with macrosomia?

Accepted Answer

Gestational diabetes mellitus

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Hypothyroidism

Answer

Maternal anemia

Question 3

Upper segment to lower segment ratio in a 3-year-old child is:

Accepted Answer

1.3:1

Answer

1.2:1

Answer

1.4:1

Answer

1.6:1

Question 4

Which of the following cancers has the highest cure rate?

Accepted Answer

Retinoblastoma

Answer

Wilm's Tumor

Answer

Rhabdomyosarcoma

Answer

All of the options

Question 5

A 30-week preterm neonate is admitted to NICU immediately after birth. Which of the following complications is MOST directly related to surfactant deficiency?

Accepted Answer

Increased risk of respiratory distress syndrome

Answer

Increased risk of intraventricular hemorrhage

Answer

Increased risk of hypothermia

Answer

Increased risk of hypoglycemia

Question 6

Which of the following is a common symptom of neonatal lupus?

Accepted Answer

Cutaneous lesion

Answer

All of the options

Answer

Thrombocytopenia

Answer

Heart block

Question 7

Which hormone surge indicates the fertile period in females?

Accepted Answer

LH

Answer

FSH

Answer

Estrogen

Answer

Oxytocin

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of LEOPARD syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Hypergonadism

Answer

Growth retardation

Answer

ECG changes

Answer

Hypertelorism

Answer

Lentigines

Question 9

Which of the following conditions characteristically causes bilateral hypertranslucency of lung fields on chest X-ray?

Accepted Answer

Emphysema

Answer

Mcleod syndrome

Answer

Poland syndrome

Answer

Pneumothorax

Question 10

What is the investigation of choice for detecting recurrence after parathyroid gland surgery?

Accepted Answer

Sestamibi scan

Answer

SPECT

Answer

MRI

Answer

Neck ultrasound

NEET-PG 2012

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Physiology

Psychiatry

Radiology

Surgery