NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?

First molar. ***First molar*** - The **first molars** are typically the first permanent teeth to erupt, usually around **6 years of age**. - They erupt distal to the primary second molars and are not preceded by primary teeth, making them crucial for establishing the **occlusion**. *First premolar* - **First premolars** typically erupt later, between **10 and 11 years of age**, replacing the primary first molars. - Their eruption is part of the **exchange of primary teeth** for permanent successors. *Second premolar* - The **second premolars** erupt even later, usually between **11 and 12 years of age**, replacing the primary second molars. - They are also involved in the **replacement of primary teeth**, not the initial permanent eruption. *Second molar* - **Second molars** erupt much later than the first molars, typically between **11 and 13 years of age**, distal to the first molars. - They are part of the **later stages of permanent dentition development**.

Q: Hypophosphatemia is seen in:

Hyperparathyroidism. ***Hyperparathyroidism*** - In **primary hyperparathyroidism**, the excess **parathyroid hormone (PTH)** leads to increased phosphate excretion by the kidneys [1], [4]. - This results in **hypophosphatemia** as the body attempts to maintain **calcium-phosphate balance**, often at the expense of phosphate levels [1]. *Hyperthyroidism* - While hyperthyroidism can affect **bone metabolism**, it is typically associated with **normal or slightly elevated phosphate levels**, not hypophosphatemia [3]. - The main electrolyte disturbances are usually related to **calcium** (e.g., hypercalcemia) due to increased bone turnover [3]. *Hypoparathyroidism* - **Hypoparathyroidism** is characterized by **low or absent PTH**, leading to decreased renal phosphate excretion. - This results in **hyperphosphatemia**, along with **hypocalcemia** [2]. *Pseudohypoparathyroidism* - In **pseudohypoparathyroidism**, there is **PTH resistance** at target tissues, even with high or normal PTH levels [2]. - This leads to symptoms resembling hypoparathyroidism, including **hyperphosphatemia** and **hypocalcemia** [2].

Q: Secretory diarrhea is not typically associated with which of the following conditions?

Celiac disease. ***Celiac disease*** [1] - Characterized by **malabsorption** due to immune-mediated damage to the intestinal mucosa, leading to **osmotic diarrhea** rather than secretory diarrhea [1]. - Symptoms include **bloating**, **weight loss**, and **steatorrhea**, which are not consistent with secretory processes. *Cholera* - Caused by **Vibrio cholerae**, leading to **massive secretory diarrhea** due to the action of cholera toxin on intestinal epithelial cells. - Presents with **watery diarrhea**, potentially leading to **dehydration** and electrolyte imbalances. *Addison's Disease* - This condition may cause **diarrhea** but typically results in **non-secretory diarrhea**, often associated with adrenal insufficiency symptoms. - Presenting features include **fatigue**, **weight loss**, and **hyperpigmentation**, not primarily secretory processes. *Phenolphthalein* - A laxative that can induce **secretory diarrhea** through its stimulant effects on the bowel. - Its mechanism leads to increased fluid secretion in the intestines, thus contributing to secretory diarrhea.

Q: The optimal timing for external cephalic version (ECV) is

36 weeks. ***36 weeks*** - At **36 weeks gestation**, there is still enough **amniotic fluid** and fetal size is not too large, which allows for successful manipulation. - This timing is particularly optimal for **multiparous women** according to **RCOG guidelines** (36-37 weeks). - This timing also minimizes the risk of **spontaneous reversion** back to a breech presentation before labor begins. - Balances adequate fetal maturity with sufficient uterine space for successful version. *34 weeks* - Performing an external cephalic version (ECV) at 34 weeks has a lower success rate and a higher chance of **spontaneous reversion** due to the smaller fetal size and relatively more amniotic fluid. - The chance of **spontaneous cephalic version** (natural turning) is still significant at this stage, making an earlier intervention potentially unnecessary. - Too early for routine ECV as many breech presentations spontaneously convert to cephalic before 36 weeks. *38 weeks* - By 38 weeks, the fetus is larger and there is proportionally less **amniotic fluid**, which makes successful external version more difficult and painful for the mother. - While **ACOG recommends 37-38 weeks**, the success rate decreases with advancing gestation due to reduced uterine space. - The risk of **uterine contractions** and iatrogenic induction of labor is higher at this gestation. *40 weeks* - At 40 weeks, the fetus is at term and much larger, occupying most of the uterine cavity, significantly reducing the chances of a successful external version. - The risk of complications such as **placental abruption**, **cord compression**, and premature labor is increased. - Success rates are markedly lower, making routine ECV at this stage generally not recommended.

Q: Cardiac output increases maximum at which week?

30-32 wks. ***30-32 wks*** - **Cardiac output** in healthy pregnant women typically reaches its maximum increase of **30-50%** above pre-pregnancy levels between **28 and 32 weeks** of gestation. - This peak output is sustained until term, primarily driven by a significant increase in **stroke volume** and a moderate increase in **heart rate**. *26-28 wks* - While cardiac output steadily rises throughout pregnancy, the **peak increase** is generally not observed as early as **26-28 weeks**. - At this stage, the increase is substantial but is still progressing towards its **maximum point**. *32-34 wks* - The maximal cardiac output is usually achieved **before** this period, typically by **32 weeks**. - From **32 weeks** onwards, cardiac output tends to **plateau**, not increase further. *34-36 wks* - By **34-36 weeks**, cardiac output has generally already reached its peak and **stabilized**. - There is typically no further increase in cardiac output during this timeframe; rather, it is maintained at its maximal level.

Q: In the context of bone metastasis, which of the following bones is least likely to be a site of metastasis?

Fibula. ***Fibula*** - The **fibula** is not commonly involved in **metastatic disease**, primarily due to its low blood supply compared to other bones. - While it can occasionally show metastatic lesions, it's **rare** when compared to more commonly affected sites. *Humerus* - The **humerus** can be affected by metastasis, often from lung or breast cancers [1], as it is one of the long bones involved in **hematogenous spread**. - Common presentations include **lytic or blastic lesions**, which indicate bone damage from metastatic processes. *Femur* - The **femur** is frequently involved in metastatic lesions, particularly in patients with malignancies like **prostate or breast cancer** [1]. - Symptoms may include **pain** and **pathologic fractures** due to the weakening of the bone structure from metastasis [1]. *Spine* - The **spine** is a common site for metastases, especially from cancers such as **lung, breast, and prostate** [1]. - Bone scans often reveal **vertebral body lesions**, leading to complications like **spinal cord compression** [1]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 674-675.

Q: All of the following are features of juvenile CML except which of the following?

Philadelphia chromosome is positive. ***Philadelphia chromosome is positive*** - **Juvenile Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (JCML)**, now known as **Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukemia (CMML)** of childhood, is characterized by the **absence** of the **Philadelphia chromosome (Ph chromosome)**. - The Ph chromosome, a t(9;22)(q34;q11) translocation forming the **BCR-ABL1 fusion gene**, is the hallmark of adult Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), but not JCML. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count) is a common feature in JCML due to ineffective hematopoiesis and bone marrow infiltration. - This contrasts with adult CML, where **thrombocytosis** (high platelet count) is more characteristic of the chronic phase. *Fetal Hb is increased* - An **increased level of fetal hemoglobin (HbF)** is a characteristic laboratory finding in children with JCML. - This elevation is related to the dysregulated hematopoiesis and is a useful diagnostic marker. *Lymphadenopathy* - **Lymphadenopathy** (enlarged lymph nodes) is a frequent clinical manifestation in JCML, reflecting the widespread infiltration of monocytic cells. - This is part of the systemic involvement seen in this aggressive myeloproliferative disorder.

Q: Diarrhoea in a child of 12 months, dose of Zinc is?

20 mg / 10 - 14 day. **20 mg / 10 - 14 day** - For children aged **12 months and older**, the recommended dose of zinc for acute diarrhea is **20 mg** once daily for **10 to 14 days**. - This dosage helps reduce the severity and duration of diarrheal episodes and prevents future occurrences. *1 mg / 10 - 14 day* - This dosage is **too low** and would be ineffective in treating or preventing the future incidence of diarrhea in a 12-month-old child. - Subtherapeutic doses will not provide the necessary micronutrient support during diarrheal illness. *10 mg / 10 - 14 day* - This is the recommended dose for children **under 6 months of age**, not for a 12-month-old child. - While it's a correct dosage for a different age group, it is an insufficient dose for a 12-month-old. *15 mg / 10 - 14 day* - This dose is **not the standard recommendation** by major health organizations like WHO or UNICEF for any age group for treating diarrhea. - It falls between the standard dosages and may not provide optimal benefit.

Q: Which of the following is the prototypical sympathomimetic agent with both alpha and beta-adrenergic activity?

Epinephrine. ***Epinephrine*** - Epinephrine (adrenaline) is a potent direct-acting **sympathomimetic** that stimulates both **alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors**. - Its diverse effects on the cardiovascular, respiratory, and other systems make it the prototypical agent for demonstrating both receptor activities. *Norepinephrine* - While norepinephrine (noradrenaline) also acts on **alpha and beta-1 receptors**, its affinity for **beta-2 receptors** is significantly lower than epinephrine. - This results in a predominant effect on **vasoconstriction** and cardiac contractility rather than bronchodilation or peripheral vasodilation. *Isoproterenol* - Isoproterenol is a **non-selective beta-adrenergic agonist**, meaning it primarily stimulates **beta-1 and beta-2 receptors**. - It has minimal or no activity at **alpha-adrenergic receptors**, differentiating it from epinephrine's mixed activity. *Dopamine* - Dopamine's effects are **dose-dependent**; at low doses, it primarily stimulates **dopamine receptors** and at moderate doses, it activates **beta-1 receptors**. - At high doses, it can stimulate **alpha-adrenergic receptors**, but its primary and distinguishing characteristic is its agonism at **dopamine receptors**, which epinephrine does not share.

Q: Road traffic accident (RTA) with multiple fractures - initial treatment would be:

Airway management. ***Airway management*** - In trauma, **establishing and maintaining a patent airway** is the absolute priority, as compromised breathing can lead to rapid deterioration and death. - The **ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)** of trauma care dictate that airway intervention precedes other life-saving measures. *Management of shock* - While crucial, **managing shock (C)** follows **airway (A)** and **breathing (B)** in the primary survey of trauma care. - Addressing profound shock without a patent airway can be ineffective and leads to irreversible damage. *Splinting of limbs* - **Splinting fractures** is important for pain control, preventing further injury, and minimizing blood loss in open fractures, but it is not an immediate life-saving intervention. - This falls under the **secondary survey** or definitive management, after life-threatening issues have been addressed. *Cervical spine protection* - **Cervical spine protection** is essential in trauma to prevent further neurological injury and is performed simultaneously with airway management (often with in-line stabilization). - However, a patent airway is the **most immediate life-sustaining intervention** if the airway is compromised.

Question 1

What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?

Accepted Answer

First molar

Answer

First premolar

Answer

Second premolar

Answer

Second molar

Question 2

Hypophosphatemia is seen in:

Accepted Answer

Hyperparathyroidism

Answer

Hyperthyroidism

Answer

Hypoparathyroidism

Answer

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

Question 3

Secretory diarrhea is not typically associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Celiac disease

Answer

Phenolphthalein

Answer

Cholera

Answer

VIPoma

Question 4

The optimal timing for external cephalic version (ECV) is

Accepted Answer

36 weeks

Answer

34 weeks

Answer

38 weeks

Answer

40 weeks

Question 5

Cardiac output increases maximum at which week?

Accepted Answer

30-32 wks

Answer

26-28 wks

Answer

34-36 wks

Answer

32-34 wks

Question 6

In the context of bone metastasis, which of the following bones is least likely to be a site of metastasis?

Accepted Answer

Fibula

Answer

Femur

Answer

Humerus

Answer

Spine

Question 7

All of the following are features of juvenile CML except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Philadelphia chromosome is positive

Answer

Fetal Hb is increased

Answer

Lymphadenopathy

Answer

Thrombocytopenia

Question 8

Diarrhoea in a child of 12 months, dose of Zinc is?

Accepted Answer

20 mg / 10 - 14 day

Answer

1 mg / 10 - 14 day

Answer

10 mg / 10 - 14 day

Answer

15 mg / 10 - 14 day

Question 9

Which of the following is the prototypical sympathomimetic agent with both alpha and beta-adrenergic activity?

Accepted Answer

Epinephrine

Answer

Isoproterenol

Answer

Norepinephrine

Answer

Dopamine

Question 10

Road traffic accident (RTA) with multiple fractures - initial treatment would be:

Accepted Answer

Airway management

Answer

Management of shock

Answer

Splinting of limbs

Answer

Cervical spine protection

NEET-PG 2012

Dental

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Surgery