NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Following are examples of human "dead end" diseases except -

Bubonic plague. ***Bubonic plague (Plague)*** - The question refers to **plague in general**, which includes multiple clinical forms. - While **bubonic plague** (the most common form) is transmitted via **flea bites** from infected rodents and humans are typically dead-end hosts for this form, **pneumonic plague** (secondary complication or primary infection) allows **human-to-human transmission** via respiratory droplets. - This makes plague the **exception** among the listed diseases, as humans can serve as a source of infection to others in the pneumonic form, unlike true dead-end host situations. *Japanese encephalitis* - Humans are **dead-end hosts** for Japanese encephalitis virus. - Infected humans do not develop sufficient **viremia** to infect feeding mosquitoes. - The virus maintains its cycle between **Culex mosquitoes**, **pigs** (amplifying hosts), and **wading birds**, with humans being incidental hosts. *Hydatid disease* - Humans are **definitive dead-end hosts** for *Echinococcus granulosus* (causing cystic echinococcosis/hydatid disease). - The normal life cycle requires **definitive hosts** (dogs, canids) and **intermediate hosts** (sheep, cattle). - Humans develop **hydatid cysts** but cannot transmit the infection further as the parasite cannot complete its life cycle in humans. *Leishmaniasis* - In most forms of leishmaniasis, humans are considered **dead-end or accidental hosts**, particularly in **zoonotic cutaneous leishmaniasis** where animal reservoirs (rodents, dogs) maintain transmission. - However, in **anthroponotic visceral leishmaniasis** (*Leishmania donovani* in the Indian subcontinent), humans can serve as reservoir hosts. - For the purpose of this question, leishmaniasis is generally classified with dead-end diseases as the majority of leishmaniasis forms have zoonotic cycles where humans are incidental hosts with limited onward transmission.

Q: At what level is Kit B (basic emergency obstetric care supplies/ASHA kit/immunization supplies) provided in the healthcare system?

Sub-center. ***Sub-center*** - **Kit B** is designed for use at the **Sub-center level** within the Indian healthcare system, specifically for **ASHA workers** and other grassroots healthcare providers. - It contains essential supplies for **basic emergency obstetric care**, as well as items for **immunization** and other primary healthcare needs in the community. *PHC* - **Primary Healthcare Centers (PHCs)** are a higher level of care compared to sub-centers and typically have more extensive facilities and a wider range of services. - While PHCs do offer obstetric care and immunization, **Kit B** itself is primarily intended for the more peripheral sub-center operations. *CHC* - **Community Healthcare Centers (CHCs)** serve as referral units for 4-5 PHCs and provide specialist services, including basic surgical and obstetric care. - The level of care and supplies at a CHC is far more comprehensive than what is contained in **Kit B**, which targets basic community-level interventions. *FRU level* - **First Referral Units (FRUs)** are typically equipped to handle all obstetric emergencies, including Caesarean sections and blood transfusions. - The scope of services at an FRU is significantly advanced, requiring a much broader inventory of medical supplies and equipment than what is found in **Kit B**.

Q: What is the forensic method of identification that utilizes lip prints?

Cheiloscopy. ***Cheiloscopy*** - **Cheiloscopy** is the scientific study of lip prints for human identification, based on the unique patterns of furrows on the human lips. - These patterns are considered individual and permanent, making them useful in forensic investigations. *Dactylography* - **Dactylography** is the study of fingerprints, which involves analyzing the unique patterns of ridges and furrows on the fingertips for identification. - It is one of the most widely used and reliable methods for personal identification in forensic science, but does not involve lip prints, *Poroscopy* - **Poroscopy** is a forensic technique that involves the examination of the pores on the ridges of fingerprints. - It is used to individualize fingerprints when there is insufficient ridge detail, but it focuses on pores, not lip prints. *Trichology* - **Trichology** is the scientific study of hair and scalp. - In forensics, it involves analyzing hair samples to determine characteristics such as origin, race, and presence of toxins, but not lip prints.

Q: Widmark's formula helps in the measurements of blood level of:

Alcohol. ***Alcohol*** - **Widmark's formula** is a widely used method to estimate an individual's **blood alcohol concentration (BAC)** based on the amount of alcohol consumed, body weight, and gender. - This formula helps in forensic toxicology and clinical settings to assess the level of **intoxication**. *Barbiturate drugs* - The levels of **barbiturate drugs** are typically measured using techniques like **gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS)** or **high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)**. - While various formulas might exist for pharmacokinetic modeling of specific drugs, Widmark's formula is not applicable to barbiturates. *Cocaine derivatives* - **Cocaine and its metabolites** (e.g., benzoylecgonine) are detected and quantified in biological samples (blood, urine) using analytical methods such as **immunoassay**, **GC-MS**, or **LC-MS/MS**. - Widmark's formula is specific to alcohol metabolism and distribution, not cocaine. *Benzodiazepine medications* - The measurement of **benzodiazepine concentrations** in blood is predominantly done using **chromatographic methods** (e.g., GC-MS, LC-MS/MS) due to their complex metabolism and structural diversity. - Widmark's formula is not designed to calculate levels of benzodiazepines.

Q: What is the effect of strychnos nux vomica poisoning on a patient's consciousness?

Remains conscious throughout the poisoning. ***Remains conscious throughout the poisoning*** - Patients poisoned with **strychnine** (from *Strychnos nux vomica*) typically remain **fully conscious** and aware of their surroundings, even during severe convulsions. - This preservation of consciousness amidst intense muscular spasms is a **distinguishing and agonizing feature** of strychnine poisoning. *Becomes unconscious within an hour* - This statement is generally incorrect for strychnine poisoning, as the prominent feature is maintained consciousness alongside **neurological excitability**. - Loss of consciousness is not a **primary or direct effect** of strychnine, though severe complications could indirectly affect it. *Becomes unconscious only in severe cases* - While extreme metabolic derangements or secondary complications (e.g., severe hypoxia from prolonged seizures) might eventually lead to altered consciousness, the **direct pharmacological action** of strychnine does not cause unconsciousness. - The patient remains conscious even through the most severe and life-threatening **tetanic spasms**. *Becomes unconscious immediately after exposure* - Strychnine primarily acts as an **antagonist to glycine receptors** in the spinal cord and brainstem, leading to exaggerated reflexes and muscle overactivity, not immediate unconsciousness. - The onset of symptoms, including muscular spasms, typically occurs within **15-30 minutes** of exposure, with consciousness generally preserved.

Q: Regarding fungal cell wall, all are true except:

Azoles act on them. ***Azoles act on them*** - **Azole antifungals** primarily target the **ergosterol synthesis** pathway, specifically inhibiting the **lanosterol 14-alpha-demethylase** enzyme, which is located in the fungal cell membrane, not the cell wall. - While the cell wall is crucial for fungal viability, agents targeting it (e.g., **echinocandins**) are distinct from azoles. *Contains chitin* - The fungal cell wall is indeed a complex structure composed of various carbohydrates, with **chitin** being a major structural polysaccharide that provides rigidity. - Chitin is a **beta-(1,4)-linked polymer of N-acetylglucosamine** and is a unique component distinguishing fungal cells from animal cells. *Prevent osmotic damage* - The rigid fungal cell wall provides structural support and protects the cell from **environmental stresses**, particularly **osmotic lysis** in hypotonic environments. - It maintains the cell's integrity against internal **turgor pressure**, which is essential for fungal growth and survival. *Does not contain peptidoglycan* - Fungal cell walls are distinct from bacterial cell walls in their composition; they **do not contain peptidoglycan**. - **Peptidoglycan** is a characteristic component of bacterial cell walls, which is targeted by antibiotics like penicillins.

Q: The reduced effect of low astigmatism in dim light is primarily due to:

Pupil constriction. ***Pupil constriction*** - In dim light conditions, patients with low astigmatism may experience **reduced symptoms** due to the **pinhole effect** of pupil constriction when they squint or strain to see better. - **Pupil constriction** limits light entry to the central optical zone, reducing the effect of irregular corneal curvature by creating a smaller aperture that acts like a **stenopic slit**. - This **pinhole effect** improves depth of focus and reduces blur from astigmatism by eliminating peripheral aberrant rays. - When viewing in dim light, patients naturally squint to improve clarity, which mimics pupil constriction and reduces astigmatic blur. *Pupil dilatation* - **Pupil dilatation** in dim light would actually *increase* astigmatic symptoms, not reduce them. - A larger pupil allows more peripheral rays to enter the eye, which pass through areas of the lens and cornea with greater refractive error. - This increases the blur circle and worsens the optical quality in uncorrected astigmatism. *Increased curvature of lens* - **Increased lens curvature** (accommodation) increases refractive power but does not correct the unequal curvature of different meridians that defines astigmatism. - This would not specifically reduce astigmatic blur in dim light conditions. *Decreased curvature of lens* - **Decreased lens curvature** reduces refractive power and is associated with relaxed accommodation. - This does not address the fundamental issue of unequal meridional refraction in astigmatism.

Q: Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with neovascular glaucoma?

Open angle glaucoma. ***Open angle glaucoma*** ✓ - **Open-angle glaucoma** is a primary **neurodegenerative disease** of the optic nerve, characterized by progressive loss of **retinal ganglion cells** and their axons, leading to characteristic **optic neuropathy** and visual field defects. - It does **NOT** directly cause **neovascularization** or increased VEGF production, which are the underlying mechanisms for **neovascular glaucoma**. - This is the **least likely** association among the given options. *Diabetes* - **Diabetic retinopathy** is a **major cause** of **neovascularization** due to retinal ischemia and increased production of **vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)**, which can lead to **neovascular glaucoma**. - **Neovascularization** on the iris (rubeosis iridis) and angle can block aqueous outflow, causing a severe, rapidly progressing form of secondary glaucoma. *CRVO (Central Retinal Vein Occlusion)* - **CRVO** leads to significant retinal ischemia and subsequent release of **VEGF**, which prompts the growth of new, fragile blood vessels. - These new vessels (neovascularization) can grow in the iris and angle, obstructing aqueous humor outflow and causing **neovascular glaucoma**. - **Ischemic CRVO** is one of the **most common causes** of neovascular glaucoma. *Eale's disease* - **Eale's disease** is an **idiopathic occlusive vasculitis** primarily affecting the **peripheral retinal veins**, leading to **retinal ischemia**. - This ischemia stimulates **neovascularization** and the production of **VEGF**, increasing the risk of **neovascular glaucoma** due to the formation of new blood vessels in the anterior chamber.

Q: Orphan Annie nuclei are characteristic of which of the following?

Papillary thyroid carcinoma. ***Papillary carcinoma thyroid***[1][2] - Characterized by **Orphan Annie nuclei**[1], which are large and round with a clear or empty appearance due to the presence of intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions[1]. - Often associated with **thyroid follicular structures** and is the most common type of thyroid cancer[2]. *Meningioma* - Typically presents with **dural-based tumors** and does not exhibit Orphan Annie nuclei. - Histologically, it may demonstrate **whorled patterns** or calcifications instead. *Carcinoma pituitary* - Involves **adenomatous changes** in the pituitary gland but does not demonstrate the characteristic Orphan Annie nuclei. - More commonly shows **varied cellular morphology** depending on the type of secretory cells (e.g., prolactin, ACTH). *Paraganglioma* - Derived from **neuroendocrine cells**, and presents with **zellballen pattern** rather than Orphan Annie nuclei. - Often shows **chromaffin cells** and is typically associated with catecholamine secretion. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, p. 1099. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 429-430.

Q: What is the mode of action of azathioprine?

T-cell blockade. ***T-cell blockade*** - Azathioprine is a **prodrug** that is metabolized into **6-mercaptopurine (6-MP)**, which then interferes with **purine synthesis** [1, 2]. - This interference inhibits the proliferation of **lymphocytes**, particularly **T-cells**, thereby blocking their immune response. *↑ IL-2* - An increase in **IL-2 (interleukin-2)** production would lead to enhanced T-cell proliferation and activity, which is the opposite effect of azathioprine. - **IL-2** is crucial for T-cell growth, differentiation, and survival, so drugs that increase it would boost, not suppress, the immune system. *Decreased lymphophagocytic activity* - This statement is not the primary mode of action of azathioprine. The drug's main effect is on the **synthesis of DNA and RNA** in rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes. - While immune suppression can indirectly affect various immune cell functions, the direct mechanism is not primarily a decrease in phagocytosis by lymphocytes. *Wide-spread antitumor activity* - Although 6-mercaptopurine, the active metabolite of azathioprine, is used in combination chemotherapy for some **hematological malignancies**, azathioprine itself is primarily known as an **immunosuppressant** in conditions like **autoimmune diseases** and **transplant rejection**. - Its antitumor activity is not typically described as "wide-spread," and its predominant use in pharmacology is for immune modulation.

Question 1

Following are examples of human "dead end" diseases except -

Accepted Answer

Bubonic plague

Answer

Hydatid disease

Answer

Japanese encephalitis

Answer

Leishmaniasis

Question 2

At what level is Kit B (basic emergency obstetric care supplies/ASHA kit/immunization supplies) provided in the healthcare system?

Accepted Answer

Sub-center

Answer

PHC

Answer

CHC

Answer

FRU level

Question 3

What is the forensic method of identification that utilizes lip prints?

Accepted Answer

Cheiloscopy

Answer

Trichology

Answer

Dactylography

Answer

Poroscopy

Question 4

Widmark's formula helps in the measurements of blood level of:

Accepted Answer

Alcohol

Answer

Barbiturate drugs

Answer

Cocaine derivatives

Answer

Benzodiazepine medications

Question 5

What is the effect of strychnos nux vomica poisoning on a patient's consciousness?

Accepted Answer

Remains conscious throughout the poisoning

Answer

Becomes unconscious within an hour

Answer

Becomes unconscious only in severe cases

Answer

Becomes unconscious immediately after exposure

Question 6

Regarding fungal cell wall, all are true except:

Accepted Answer

Azoles act on them

Answer

Contains chitin

Answer

Prevent osmotic damage

Answer

Does not contain peptidoglycan

Question 7

The reduced effect of low astigmatism in dim light is primarily due to:

Accepted Answer

Pupil constriction

Answer

Pupil dilatation

Answer

Increased curvature of lens

Answer

Decreased curvature of lens

Question 8

Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with neovascular glaucoma?

Accepted Answer

Open angle glaucoma

Answer

Diabetes

Answer

CRVO

Answer

Eale's disease

Question 9

Orphan Annie nuclei are characteristic of which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Papillary thyroid carcinoma

Answer

Paraganglioma with Zellballen pattern

Answer

Meningioma with psammoma bodies

Answer

Pituitary adenoma with atypical nuclei

Question 10

What is the mode of action of azathioprine?

Accepted Answer

T-cell blockade

Answer

↑ IL-2

Answer

Decreased lymphophagocytic activity

Answer

Wide-spread antitumor activity

NEET-PG 2012

Community Medicine

Dental

Forensic Medicine

Microbiology

Ophthalmology

Pathology

Pharmacology