NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is NOT a surface marking of the oblique fissure of the lung?

7th rib. ***7th rib*** - The **oblique fissure** typically extends from the spine at approximately the **T3 vertebral level** anteriorly to the **6th costal cartilage**. [1] - The **7th rib** is generally inferior to the typical anterior termination point of the oblique fissure. [1] *T3* - The **oblique fissure** begins posteriorly at the level of the **spinous process of T3**. [1] - This marks the superior-posterior extent of the fissure on the surface. *5th rib* - The **oblique fissure** crosses the **5th intercostal space** on the lateral chest wall. [1] - This point helps map the fissure's path between its posterior and anterior endpoints. *6th costal cartilage* - The **oblique fissure** terminates anteriorly near the **6th costal cartilage** in the midclavicular line. [1] - This represents the inferior-anterior most point of the fissure on the chest wall.

Q: All are lateral branches of the abdominal aorta, EXCEPT which of the following?

Celiac trunk. ***Celiac trunk*** - The **celiac trunk** is an anterior branch of the abdominal aorta, supplying the foregut derivatives. - It arises from the ventral aspect of the aorta, distinguishing it from lateral branches. *Right testicular artery* - The **testicular arteries** (gonadal arteries) are paired lateral branches of the abdominal aorta. - They arise inferior to the renal arteries and descend to supply the testes in males. *Left renal artery* - The **renal arteries** [1] [3] are large paired lateral branches of the abdominal aorta. - They supply the kidneys [2] and typically arise just inferior to the superior mesenteric artery. *Middle suprarenal artery* - The **middle suprarenal arteries** are paired lateral branches, typically arising directly from the abdominal aorta. - They supply the suprarenal (adrenal) glands [2].

Q: Risorius is a muscle of?

Facial expression. Facial expression - The **risorius muscle** retracts the **corner of the mouth** laterally, contributing to smiling or grimacing. - It falls under the category of **mimetic muscles**, all of which are innervated by the **facial nerve (cranial nerve VII)**. *Mastication* - Muscles of mastication, such as the **masseter**, **temporalis**, and **pterygoids**, are primarily involved in **chewing** and moving the mandible. - These muscles are innervated by the **trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)**, not the facial nerve. *Deglutition* - Deglutition refers to the process of **swallowing**, involving muscles of the **pharynx** and **larynx**. - Examples include the **palatoglossus**, **stylopharyngeus**, and **superior pharyngeal constrictor**. *Eye movement* - Muscles responsible for eye movement are the **extrinsic ocular muscles**, such as the **recti** and **oblique muscles** [1]. - These muscles are innervated by the **oculomotor (III)**, **trochlear (IV)**, and **abducens (VI)** cranial nerves. *Note: No provided references mention the risorius muscle, mimetic muscles, or muscles of mastication; citations are applied only to supported sub-topics.*

Q: From which ribs does the spleen extend?

9th to 11th rib. ***9th to 11th rib*** - The **spleen** is located in the **left upper quadrant** of the abdomen, deep to the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs. - Its protected position beneath these ribs makes it vulnerable to injury from trauma to the left lower chest or upper abdomen. *5th to 9th rib* - This range primarily covers the location of the **heart** and the upper part of the **lungs**. - While the spleen is superior to other abdominal organs, it does not extend as high as the 5th rib. *2nd to 5th rib* - This region is mainly associated with the **upper lobes of the lungs** and the **superior mediastinum**. - The spleen is an abdominal organ and is situated much lower in the thoracic cavity. *11th to 12th rib* - This range is too low and posterior for the typical position of the spleen, especially for its superior border. - The 12th rib primarily overlies the **kidneys** and the more inferior aspects of the diaphragm.

Q: Which isoform of LDH is raised in Anemia ?

LDH 2. ***Correct: LDH 2*** - **LDH 2 (H3M1)** is highly abundant in **red blood cells (RBCs)**, second only to LDH 1. - In **hemolytic anemia**, there is increased destruction of red blood cells, leading to the release of intracellular LDH isoforms into the bloodstream. - Both **LDH 1 and LDH 2 are significantly elevated** in hemolytic anemia, as RBCs contain predominantly these two isoforms. - The elevation of LDH 2 is particularly notable and diagnostically useful in anemia, especially hemolytic conditions. *Incorrect: LDH 1* - **LDH 1 (H4)** is the most abundant isoform in **heart muscle** and is also present in **red blood cells**. - While LDH 1 is indeed elevated in hemolytic anemia, this option is not the best answer in this context. - LDH 1 elevation is classically associated with **myocardial infarction**. *Incorrect: LDH 4* - **LDH 4 (HM3)** is present in various tissues, including **liver, skeletal muscle, and kidneys**, but in lower concentrations. - Not the primary isoform associated with anemia. *Incorrect: LDH 5* - **LDH 5 (M4)** is predominantly found in the **liver and skeletal muscles**. - Elevation of LDH 5 typically indicates **liver damage, muscle injury, or malignancies**, not primarily anemia.

Q: Chylomicron remnants are associated with ?

Apo-E. ***Apo-E*** - **Apolipoprotein E (Apo-E)** is a crucial apolipoprotein on the surface of chylomicron remnants, acting as a **ligand for the LDL receptor-related protein 1 (LRP1)** in the liver. - This binding facilitates the **hepatic uptake and clearance** of chylomicron remnants from circulation. *Apo-A* - **Apo-AI** is the primary apolipoprotein of **HDL** and plays a key role in reverse cholesterol transport by activating **lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)**. - While chylomicrons *acquire* some Apo-AI from HDL, it is not the primary apolipoprotein defining their remnants' hepatic clearance. *Apo-C* - **Apo-CII** is a vital activator of **lipoprotein lipase (LPL)**, which metabolizes triglycerides in chylomicrons and VLDL. - **Apo-CIII** inhibits LPL and hinders receptor-mediated uptake, but **Apo-E** is the key for remnant recognition and uptake, not Apo-C in general. *Apo-B100* - **Apo-B100** is the main structural apolipoprotein of **LDL** and **VLDL**, serving as the ligand for the LDL receptor, mediating their hepatic uptake. - While chylomicrons have **Apo-B48**, which is a truncated form of Apo-B100, Apo-B100 itself is not found on chylomicron remnants.

Q: Organ that can utilize glucose, fatty acids and ketone bodies is:

Skeletal muscle. ***Skeletal muscle*** - Skeletal muscle is highly adaptable and can utilize **glucose**, **fatty acids (FAs)**, and **ketone bodies** as fuel sources, especially during prolonged exercise or starvation. - Its metabolic flexibility allows it to switch between these substrates depending on their availability and the body's energy demands. *Liver* - The liver is central to metabolism but primarily **produces ketone bodies** from fatty acids rather than utilizing them as a major fuel source for its own energy needs. - While it uses glucose and FAs, its role in ketone body metabolism is largely synthetic. *Brain* - The brain preferentially uses **glucose** as its primary fuel. - During prolonged starvation, it can adapt to utilize **ketone bodies** as an alternative fuel source, but it does not significantly use fatty acids directly. *RBC* - Red blood cells (RBCs) lack mitochondria and therefore rely exclusively on **anaerobic glycolysis** for energy, metabolizing only **glucose**. - They cannot utilize fatty acids or ketone bodies.

Q: What is Little's area, also known as Kiesselbach's plexus?

Anteroinferior nasal septum. ***Anteroinferior nasal septum*** - **Little's area**, or **Kiesselbach's plexus**, is a well-vascularized region located on the **anteroinferior portion of the nasal septum**. - This area is a common site for **anterior epistaxis** (nosebleeds) due to its superficial position and rich anastomotic blood supply from several arteries. *Anteroinferior lateral wall* - While the lateral nasal wall also contributes to the nasal blood supply, the specific region of **Little's area** is on the **septum**, not the lateral wall. - The **lateral wall** contains structures like the turbinates and their associated vascular networks, which are distinct from Kiesselbach's plexus. *Posteroinferior lateral wall* - The **posterior and inferior aspects** of the nasal cavity are not where Kiesselbach's plexus is predominantly located. - Bleeding from this posterior region often indicates **posterior epistaxis**, which can be more severe and difficult to control. *Posteroinferior nasal septum* - The **posterior nasal septum** is supplied by different arteries, such as branches of the **sphenopalatine artery**. - Bleeding from this part of the septum is also considered **posterior epistaxis** and is not typically associated with Kiesselbach's plexus.

Q: ANP acts at which site?

Collecting duct. ***Collecting duct*** - Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (**ANP**) exerts its primary effect on the **collecting duct** by inhibiting sodium reabsorption, leading to increased sodium and water excretion (natriuresis and diuresis). - This action helps to reduce blood volume and blood pressure in conditions like **hypervolemia**. *Glomerulus* - While ANP does cause **afferent arteriolar dilation** and **efferent arteriolar constriction**, increasing **glomerular filtration rate** (GFR), its direct tubular action is most prominent in the collecting duct. - The primary function of the glomerulus is **filtration**, influenced by many factors including pressure, but it is not the main site of ANP's direct tubular reabsorptive effects. *Loop of Henle* - The loop of Henle is responsible for establishing the **medullary osmotic gradient** and reabsorbing a significant amount of sodium and water. - ANP has minor effects on the loop of Henle, but its most impactful reabsorptive modulation occurs downstream in the collecting duct. *PCT* - The **proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)** is where the bulk of reabsorption of filtered substances (e.g., glucose, amino acids, most sodium and water) occurs. - ANP has very little direct influence on the reabsorptive processes of the PCT.

Q: Motilin secretion is decreased in which of the following states?

Ingested meal. ***Ingested meal*** - Motilin secretion is **decreased after a meal** due to the presence of food in the small intestine, which stimulates other gastrointestinal hormones and neuronal reflexes that inhibit motilin release. - The primary role of motilin is to stimulate **gastric and intestinal motility** during fasting, clearing residual food and preventing bacterial overgrowth, making its activity counterproductive during digestion. *Thirsty* - **Thirst** is primarily regulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, and it does not directly impact motilin secretion. - Motilin's main function is related to gut motility, largely independent of the body's hydration status. *Starving* - Motilin levels tend to be **higher during fasting or starvation**, as it plays a crucial role in initiating the **migrating motor complex (MMC)**, which sweeps undigested material through the gastrointestinal tract. - This activity prevents bacterial overgrowth and prepares the gut for the next meal; thus, its secretion is increased, not decreased. *Interdigestive state* - The **interdigestive state** refers to the period between meals, which is synonymous with a fasting or starving state. - During this period, motilin secretion is **increased** to stimulate the **migrating motor complex (MMC)**, which is essential for gut cleansing.

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a surface marking of the oblique fissure of the lung?

Accepted Answer

7th rib

Answer

6th costal cartilage

Answer

T3

Answer

5th rib

Question 2

All are lateral branches of the abdominal aorta, EXCEPT which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Celiac trunk

Answer

Right testicular artery

Answer

Left renal artery

Answer

Middle suprarenal artery

Question 3

Risorius is a muscle of?

Accepted Answer

Facial expression

Answer

Mastication

Answer

Deglutition

Answer

Eye movement

Question 4

From which ribs does the spleen extend?

Accepted Answer

9th to 11th rib

Answer

5th to 9th rib

Answer

2nd to 5th rib

Answer

11th to 12th rib

Question 5

Which isoform of LDH is raised in Anemia ?

Accepted Answer

LDH 2

Answer

LDH 5

Answer

LDH 4

Answer

LDH 1

Question 6

Chylomicron remnants are associated with ?

Accepted Answer

Apo-E

Answer

Apo-C

Answer

Apo-A

Answer

Apo-B100

Question 7

Organ that can utilize glucose, fatty acids and ketone bodies is:

Accepted Answer

Skeletal muscle

Answer

Liver

Answer

Brain

Answer

RBC

Question 8

What is Little's area, also known as Kiesselbach's plexus?

Accepted Answer

Anteroinferior nasal septum

Answer

Anteroinferior lateral wall

Answer

Posteroinferior lateral wall

Answer

Posteroinferior nasal septum

Question 9

ANP acts at which site?

Accepted Answer

Collecting duct

Answer

Glomerulus

Answer

Loop of Henle

Answer

PCT

Question 10

Motilin secretion is decreased in which of the following states?

Accepted Answer

Ingested meal

Answer

Thirsty

Answer

Starving

Answer

Interdigestive state

NEET-PG 2012

Anatomy

Biochemistry

ENT

Physiology