NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Fast induction and recovery is seen in?

N2O. ***N2O*** - **Nitrous oxide (N2O)** has a very **low blood-gas partition coefficient**, meaning it rapidly equilibrates between the alveolar gas and blood. - This rapid equilibration leads to a **fast onset of anesthetic action** (induction) and quick elimination from the body (recovery). *methoxyflurane* - **Methoxyflurane** has a **high blood-gas partition coefficient**, which means it has high solubility in blood. - This high solubility leads to **slow induction and prolonged recovery** as more anesthetic needs to be dissolved and then eliminated from the blood. *ether* - **Diethyl ether** also has a relatively **high blood-gas partition coefficient**, resulting in slow induction and recovery. - Its high solubility in blood and tissues means it takes longer to achieve and then dissipate its anesthetic effect. *halothane* - **Halothane** has a **moderate blood-gas partition coefficient**, leading to a slower induction and recovery compared to N2O. - While faster than methoxyflurane or ether, its solubility is still significant enough to delay its onset and offset.

Q: Best provocative test for diagnosis of Gastrinoma is:

Secretin injection test. ***Secretin injection test*** - The **secretin injection test** is the most reliable provocative test for gastrinoma, leading to a paradoxical increase in gastrin levels [1]. - In normal individuals, secretin suppresses gastrin release, but in gastrinoma, it stimulates **gastrin secretion** [1]. *Ca++ infusion test* - The **calcium infusion test** can also stimulate gastrin release in gastrinoma patients, but it is less specific and potentially more risky than the secretin test due to potential side effects like cardiac arrhythmias. - It involves infusing calcium gluconate to observe any uncharacteristic rise in gastrin. *ACTH stimulation test* - The **ACTH stimulation test** is used to evaluate adrenal gland function, particularly in suspected cases of adrenal insufficiency or hypercortisolism [2]. - It does not have any direct relevance to the diagnosis of **gastrinoma**. *Steroid assay* - **Steroid assays** measure levels of various steroid hormones (e.g., cortisol, aldosterone) in the body to assess adrenal or gonadal function. - This test is not used for diagnosing **gastrinoma**.

Q: After delivery upto which week is known as puerperium?

6 weeks. ***6 weeks*** - The **puerperium** is the period of approximately **6 weeks** after childbirth during which the mother's body undergoes physiological adaptations to return to its non-pregnant state. - This timeframe allows for the involution of the uterus and the restoration of reproductive organs and systemic physiology. *2 weeks* - This period is too short to encompass the full physiological recovery process after childbirth. - While immediate postpartum changes occur, many maternal systems, such as the reproductive organs, have not fully reverted to their pre-pregnancy state within 2 weeks. *4 weeks* - This duration is still considered an incomplete period for the extensive physiological changes that define the puerperium. - Uterine involution often continues beyond 4 weeks, and other hormonal and systemic adjustments are still ongoing. *8 weeks* - While recovery continues, the primary definition of the puerperium typically concludes at **6 weeks postpartum**. - By 8 weeks, most significant physiological changes have already occurred, and the body is largely back to its pre-pregnant state.

Q: Which of the following pelvic measurements is most commonly used in clinical practice?

Diagonal conjugate. ***Diagonal conjugate*** - This measurement is the most commonly used in clinical practice due to its **accessibility** and ability to estimate the **obstetrical conjugate**, which indicates the true AP diameter of the pelvic inlet. - It is measured vaginally from the **lower border of the symphysis pubis** to the **sacral promontory**. *Anteroposterior diameter of inlet* - This measurement, also known as the **obstetrical conjugate**, truly represents the narrowest AP diameter for fetal passage through the inlet. - However, it cannot be measured directly clinically and must be estimated from the diagonal conjugate or imaging. *Transverse diameter of outlet* - This measurement is important for assessing the **midpelvis** and **pelvic outlet**, but it is less commonly the primary measurement used for initial pelvic assessment compared to the diagonal conjugate. - A compromised transverse diameter can indicate a generally contracted pelvis or **android/anthropoid pelvic shapes**, which may lead to obstructed labor. *Oblique diameter of pelvis* - The oblique diameter provides information about the **symmetry of the pelvis**, but it is not routinely measured clinically unless there is suspicion of pelvic asymmetry or disease. - Significant asymmetry, often due to injury or disease (e.g., **scoliosis**, polio), can complicate labor by misdirecting the fetal head.

Q: What is thelarche?

Hormone-related breast development in girls. ***Hormone-related breast enlargement in girls*** - **Thelarche** specifically refers to the first sign of puberty in girls, which is the **onset of breast development**. - This development is primarily driven by the action of **estrogen** on breast tissue. *Breast development in boys during puberty* - This condition is known as **gynecomastia**, which is distinguishable from thelarche observed in girls. - While also hormone-related, **gynecomastia** often involves an imbalance between estrogen and androgens. *Breast enlargement during pregnancy* - Breast enlargement during pregnancy is a normal physiological change in preparation for lactation, driven by a surge in various hormones like **estrogen, progesterone, and prolactin**. - It is distinct from the initial, puberty-related breast development in girls. *Breast enlargement due to hormonal therapy in postmenopausal women* - This is an induced effect of **exogenous hormones** (e.g., hormone replacement therapy) and not a natural developmental stage like thelarche. - It is a side effect of medication, not the start of puberty.

Q: Sequestrum is best defined as

A piece of dead bone surrounded by infected tissue. ***A piece of dead bone surrounded by infected tissue*** * A sequestrum is a fragment of **necrotic (dead) bone** that has become separated from the surrounding living bone in the context of **chronic osteomyelitis**. * The dead bone is typically surrounded by **infected granulation tissue and pus**, making it the classic definition taught in the context of bone infections. * The sequestrum acts as a **nidus for persistent infection**, as antibiotics cannot penetrate the avascular dead bone, making surgical removal often necessary. *A piece of dead bone without surrounding infection* * While a sequestrum is fundamentally dead bone, in clinical practice and standard teaching, it is **intrinsically associated with infection** in osteomyelitis. * The phrase "without surrounding infection" makes this option incorrect, as the classic sequestrum occurs in the **inflammatory milieu of chronic osteomyelitis**. *A piece of bone with compromised blood supply* * This describes **ischemic or avascular bone**, which is the **initial pathological event** that leads to bone death. * However, this is not the definition of sequestrum itself—the sequestrum is the **end result** (dead bone fragment) rather than bone with compromised vascularity. * A sequestrum has **no blood supply** (completely avascular), not merely compromised supply. *None of the options* * This is incorrect because the first option accurately captures the **standard definition of sequestrum** as taught in the context of chronic osteomyelitis in medical education.

Q: What is the most common complication associated with carpal tunnel release surgery?

Finger stiffness. ***Finger stiffness*** - Among the options listed, **finger stiffness** is the most recognized complication of carpal tunnel release surgery. - **Post-operative pain, swelling, and scar tissue formation** can lead to reduced range of motion in the digits. - Patients may develop stiffness due to **immobilization**, **scar adhesions**, or apprehension in mobilizing the hand after surgery. - **Note:** In clinical practice, **pillar pain** (pain at the thenar and hypothenar eminences) is actually the most common complication (10-30% of cases), but it is not among the options provided. *Malunion* - **Malunion** refers to improper healing of a fractured bone. - Carpal tunnel release involves dividing the **transverse carpal ligament** (flexor retinaculum), which is a **soft tissue procedure**. - No bone is cut or fractured, so malunion is not relevant to this surgery. *Avascular necrosis* - **Avascular necrosis (AVN)** is bone death due to interrupted blood supply. - AVN affects bones with precarious blood supply (femoral head, scaphoid, lunate in Kienböck's disease). - Carpal tunnel release does not involve bone manipulation and **AVN is not a recognized complication** of this procedure. *Rupture of EPL tendon* - **Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL) tendon rupture** is classically associated with **distal radius fractures** or inflammatory arthritis. - EPL runs through the **third dorsal compartment** and is anatomically distant from the carpal tunnel (volar wrist). - While median nerve injury is a rare but serious complication of carpal tunnel release, **EPL rupture is not associated** with this surgery.

Q: Fairbank triangle is seen in

Congenital coxa vara. ***Congenital coxa vara*** - The Fairbank triangle refers to a radiographic sign seen in **congenital coxa vara**, which helps in diagnosing the condition. - It is formed by a line drawn along the femoral shaft, a perpendicular line from the same point to the femoral head's lower margin, and a third line connecting the intersection on the shaft to the top of the femoral head, creating a diagnostic triangle when the head is malaligned. *CDH* - **Congenital developmental dysplasia of the hip (CDH)** involves abnormal development of the hip joint. - While it can lead to hip deformities, the **Fairbank triangle** is not a specific diagnostic sign for CDH. *Perthe's disease* - **Perthe's disease** is an avascular necrosis of the femoral head, typically affecting children. - Radiographic findings include **sclerosis**, **fragmentation**, and later flattening of the femoral head, but not the Fairbank triangle. *SCFE* - **Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)** is characterized by a posterior and inferior displacement of the femoral head epiphysis from the metaphysis. - Radiographic signs include the **Klein's line**, but the Fairbank triangle is not associated with SCFE.

Q: Most common CNS tumor associated with NF1

Optic glioma. ***Optic glioma*** - **Optic gliomas** (specifically **pilocytic astrocytomas**) are the most common CNS tumor found in association with **Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)** [1]. - These tumors typically affect the **optic nerve** and can cause vision impairment. *Optic nerve schwannoma* - **Schwannomas** are tumors arising from Schwann cells, and while they can affect cranial nerves, an **optic nerve schwannoma** is very rare and not characteristic of NF1. - The most common schwannoma associated with neurofibromatosis is a **vestibular schwannoma** (acoustic neuroma) in NF2, not NF1 [2]. *Astrocytoma* - While optic gliomas are a type of astrocytoma, simply stating "astrocytoma" is too broad; the specific location (optic nerve) and type (pilocytic) are key in NF1 [1]. - Other types of astrocytomas (e.g., glioblastoma) are not typically associated with NF1 as the *most common* CNS tumor. *Bilateral acoustic neuroma* - **Bilateral acoustic neuromas** (vestibular schwannomas) are the hallmark CNS tumor of **Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2)**, not NF1 [2]. - This symptom strongly points to NF2, a distinct genetic disorder from NF1 [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1319-1320. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Manifestations Of Central And Peripheral Nervous System Disease, pp. 727-728.

Q: What does the term 'etheromania' refer to?

Ether addiction. ***Ether addiction*** - **Etheromania** specifically refers to the compulsive use and dependence on **ether** for its psychoactive effects. - This term was historically used to describe individuals who developed a significant **addiction** to ether. - The suffix "-mania" in psychiatric terminology often denotes an obsessive or compulsive behavior pattern related to a specific substance. *Acute psychosis following ether anesthesia* - While ether anesthesia can sometimes lead to transient psychomotor agitation or emergence delirium, **acute psychosis** is not the primary definition of etheromania. - Etheromania describes a long-term pattern of **addictive behavior**, not an acute post-anesthesia complication. *Excessive use of ether as an anesthetic* - This describes a medical application of ether, albeit potentially misused, but does not primarily denote the **addictive state** of the person using it. - **Etheromania** focuses on the individual's psychological and physiological dependence, not merely the quantity used for medical purposes. *Delirium tremens from ether withdrawal* - Delirium tremens is specifically associated with **alcohol withdrawal**, not ether withdrawal. - While ether withdrawal can cause symptoms, the term **etheromania** refers to the addiction itself, not withdrawal complications.

Question 1

Fast induction and recovery is seen in?

Accepted Answer

N2O

Answer

Methoxyflurane

Answer

Ether

Answer

Halothane

Question 2

Best provocative test for diagnosis of Gastrinoma is:

Accepted Answer

Secretin injection test

Answer

Ca++ infusion test

Answer

ACTH stimulation test

Answer

Steroid assay

Question 3

After delivery upto which week is known as puerperium?

Accepted Answer

6 weeks

Answer

2 weeks

Answer

4 weeks

Answer

8 weeks

Question 4

Which of the following pelvic measurements is most commonly used in clinical practice?

Accepted Answer

Diagonal conjugate

Answer

Transverse diameter of outlet

Answer

Oblique diameter of pelvis

Answer

Anteroposterior diameter of inlet

Question 5

What is thelarche?

Accepted Answer

Hormone-related breast development in girls

Answer

Breast development in boys during puberty

Answer

Breast enlargement during pregnancy

Answer

Breast enlargement due to hormonal therapy in postmenopausal women

Question 6

Sequestrum is best defined as

Accepted Answer

A piece of dead bone surrounded by infected tissue

Answer

A piece of dead bone without surrounding infection

Answer

A piece of bone with compromised blood supply

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

What is the most common complication associated with carpal tunnel release surgery?

Accepted Answer

Finger stiffness

Answer

Malunion

Answer

Avascular necrosis

Answer

Rupture of EPL tendon

Question 8

Fairbank triangle is seen in

Accepted Answer

Congenital coxa vara

Answer

CDH

Answer

Perthe's disease

Answer

SCFE

Question 9

Most common CNS tumor associated with NF1

Accepted Answer

Optic glioma

Answer

Astrocytoma

Answer

Bilateral acoustic neuroma

Answer

Optic nerve schwannoma

Question 10

What does the term 'etheromania' refer to?

Accepted Answer

Ether addiction

Answer

Acute psychosis following ether anesthesia

Answer

Excessive use of ether as an anesthetic

Answer

Delirium tremens from ether withdrawal

NEET-PG 2012

Anesthesiology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Psychiatry