Bacterial Skin Infections Practice Questions

Q: A 40-year-old woman presents with a painless ulcer on her genitalia and reports a recent new sexual partner. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Syphilis. Syphilis - **Primary syphilis** is characterized by a **painless chancre** (ulcer) at the site of infection [1], which typically appears 10 to 90 days after exposure. - The history of a new sexual partner increases the likelihood of acquiring a sexually transmitted infection like syphilis [2]. *Gonorrhea* - Primarily causes **urethritis** in men and **cervicitis** in women, leading to symptoms like discharge and dysuria, not typically a painless ulcer. - While it can cause pharyngitis or proctitis, a painless genital ulcer is not its classic presentation. *Chlamydia* - Often causes **asymptomatic infections** or symptoms similar to gonorrhea, such as **cervicitis** or **urethritis**, with discharge and dysuria [2]. - It does not typically present with a **painless genital ulcer**. *Genital herpes* - Characterized by **painful vesicles** and **ulcers** [3], usually preceded by prodromal symptoms like tingling or burning. - The ulcers associated with herpes are typically *painful* [4], which contrasts with the symptom presented in the question.

Q: Which of the following is the treatment of choice for chancroid?

Azithromycin. ***Azithromycin*** - **Azithromycin** 1 gram orally in a **single dose** is a highly effective and convenient treatment for chancroid caused by *Haemophilus ducreyi*. - Its long half-life allows for single-dose administration, which improves **patient adherence** and reduces the risk of further transmission. *Ceftriaxone* - **Ceftriaxone** is primarily used to treat **gonorrhea** [1] and is also effective against other bacterial infections. While it has some activity against *Haemophilus ducreyi*, **azithromycin** or **ciprofloxacin** are generally preferred for chancroid. *Penicillin* - **Penicillin** is the cornerstone of treatment for **syphilis**, caused by *Treponema pallidum*. - It is **not effective** against *Haemophilus ducreyi*, the causative agent of chancroid. *Doxycycline* - **Doxycycline** is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used to treat various infections, including **chlamydia** and **syphilis** (as an alternative to penicillin). - It is **not the preferred first-line treatment** for chancroid; single-dose azithromycin or ceftriaxone are generally more effective.

Q: A 30-year-old male presents with a history of a painless genital ulcer followed by a generalized rash and mucous patches in the mouth. What is the appropriate treatment?

Penicillin G. Penicillin G - The clinical presentation of a **painless genital ulcer** (chancre) followed by a **generalized rash** [1] and **mucous patches** in the mouth is classic for **secondary syphilis**. [3] - **Penicillin G benzathine** is the treatment of choice for all stages of syphilis, effectively eradicating the causative organism, *Treponema pallidum*. [2] *Azithromycin* - Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic primarily used for treating **atypical pneumonia**, **chlamydia**, and some **bacterial gastroenteritis**. - It is not effective against *Treponema pallidum* and is not recommended for the treatment of syphilis due to increasing resistance. *Doxycycline* - Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic used for various bacterial infections, including **Lyme disease**, **Rocky Mountain spotted fever**, and **chlamydia**. - While it can be used as an alternative treatment for syphilis in patients **allergic to penicillin**, penicillin G is the preferred first-line agent due to its superior efficacy. *Acyclovir* - Acyclovir is an **antiviral medication** used to treat **herpes simplex virus (HSV)** infections, such as genital herpes and cold sores. - It has no antibacterial activity and is therefore ineffective against syphilis, which is caused by a bacterium.

Q: A 25-year-old man develops hypopigmented atrophic patches with diminished sensation on his face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Indeterminate leprosy. ***Indeterminate leprosy*** - This is the earliest stage of leprosy, characterized by **hypopigmented or erythematous patches** with **diminished or absent sensation** (hypesthesia or anesthesia). - The lesions are typically **few in number** (1-5), ill-defined, and may show subtle **atrophy** due to involvement of dermal nerves and adnexal structures. - **Loss of sensation** is the key diagnostic feature that distinguishes leprosy from other hypopigmentary disorders. In early cases, sensory loss may be subtle and require careful examination. - The face is a common site for leprosy lesions due to the cooler temperature preferred by *Mycobacterium leprae*. *Pityriasis alba* - Presents with **hypopigmented patches with fine scales**, commonly seen in children and adolescents on the face. - Lesions have **normal sensation** (not anesthetic) and are **not atrophic**. - Generally resolves spontaneously without treatment. *Pityriasis versicolor* - Caused by **Malassezia yeast**, presenting as hypo- or hyperpigmented patches with fine scales. - Lesions have **normal sensation** and are typically found on the **trunk and proximal extremities**. - Not atrophic and can be confirmed with KOH examination showing "spaghetti and meatballs" appearance. *Borderline leprosy* - Represents mid-spectrum disease with **multiple, well-defined plaques** showing clear asymmetry. - Shows **definite anesthesia** with demonstrable nerve thickening. - Lesions are more numerous and polymorphic compared to indeterminate leprosy, with clearer immunological classification.

Q: A 27-year-old man presents with a painless genital ulcer and non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The VDRL test is positive. What is the next step in management?

Confirm with FTA-ABS. ***Confirm with FTA-ABS*** - A positive **VDRL test** (a non-treponemal test) for syphilis should always be confirmed with a **treponemal-specific test** like **FTA-ABS** (fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption) due to the possibility of false positives [1]. - The combination of a **painless genital ulcer** (chancre) and **non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy** is highly suggestive of **primary syphilis**, making confirmation crucial before treatment. *Empirical treatment with benzathine penicillin* - While syphilis is treated with **benzathine penicillin**, empirical treatment without confirmation is generally not recommended, especially given the availability of confirmatory tests. - This approach could lead to unnecessary antibiotic exposure if the VDRL result is a **false positive**, and would miss an opportunity for definitive diagnosis [1]. *PCR for HSV* - **Herpes simplex virus (HSV)** typically causes painful, vesicular lesions that ulcerate, which is different from the described painless ulcer [2]. - Although HSV can cause genital ulcers, a positive VDRL specifically points towards syphilis, making HSV testing less relevant as the *next* step [2]. *Dark field microscopy for syphilis diagnosis* - **Dark-field microscopy** is a method for directly visualizing **Treponema pallidum** from chancre exudate, providing an immediate diagnosis. - However, it requires specialized equipment and expertise that may not be readily available, and a confirmatory serological test like **FTA-ABS** is still necessary for a complete diagnostic workup.

Q: A 26-year-old woman presents with a painless, indurated genital ulcer, and VDRL is positive. What is the first-line treatment?

Benzathine penicillin G. Benzathine penicillin G - A painless, indurated genital ulcer combined with a positive VDRL strongly indicates primary syphilis [1]. - Benzathine penicillin G administered as a single intramuscular dose is the first-line treatment for primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis due to its efficacy and extended action. *Doxycycline* - While doxycycline is an alternative treatment for penicillin-allergic patients with early syphilis, it is not the first-line therapy due to penicillin's superior efficacy and single-dose convenience. - It would require a 14-day course of treatment, which is less convenient than a single penicillin injection. *Azithromycin* - Azithromycin is typically used for treating chlamydia or gonorrhea, but it is not effective for treating syphilis due to increasing resistance and inferior efficacy compared to penicillin. - It is not recommended as a primary or alternative treatment for syphilis by current guidelines. *Ceftriaxone* - Ceftriaxone is primarily used for the treatment of gonorrhea, bacterial meningitis, and other severe bacterial infections. - While it has some activity against Treponema pallidum, it is not the recommended first-line treatment for syphilis and its efficacy has not been as thoroughly established as penicillin.

Q: 28 year old female complaints of foul smelling yellowish urethral discharge since 4 days. History of burning micturation. History of sexual contact with multiple partners 2 days before the onset of symptoms. Most likely diagnosis is ?

Gonococcal urethritis. ***Gonococcal urethritis*** - The presentation of **foul-smelling, yellowish urethral discharge** and **burning micturition** shortly after unprotected sexual contact with multiple partners is highly suggestive of **gonorrhea**. [1] - Symptoms in females are often mild or asymptomatic, but when present, include **dysuria** and vaginal discharge that can be purulent. [2] *Chlamydia* - While *Chlamydia* can cause urethritis with similar symptoms, the discharge is typically **less purulent and yellowish** and more often *mucoid or clear*. [1] - The incubation period for *Chlamydia* is generally **longer (1-3 weeks)** compared to the 2-day onset in this case. [1] *Chancroid* - Characterized by **painful genital ulcers with suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy** (buboes), rather than urethral discharge and dysuria. - It is caused by *Haemophilus ducreyi*, and ulcer formation is the primary symptom. *Non-infective urethritis* - Non-infective urethritis would present with similar symptoms but would lack the history of **recent unprotected sexual contact** with multiple partners. - This diagnosis is typically considered after excluding infectious causes, especially in sexually active individuals. [1]

Q: Which of the following is the least preferred treatment for impetigo?

Topical gentamicin. ***Topical gentamicin*** - **Gentamicin** is an **aminoglycoside** with a broad spectrum of activity, and it is usually reserved for serious infections due to its potential for **ototoxicity** and **nephrotoxicity**. - While it has antibacterial properties, it is not a first-line treatment for impetigo due to the availability of safer and equally effective topical antibiotics. *Topical mupirocin* - **Mupirocin** is a highly effective topical antibiotic for **impetigo**, particularly against **Staphylococcus aureus** and **Streptococcus pyogenes**. - It is often considered a **first-line therapy** for localized impetigo due to its low systemic absorption and favorable safety profile. *Systemic erythromycin* - **Erythromycin** is a **macrolide antibiotic** that can be used for impetigo, especially in cases of extensive involvement or when topical treatments are insufficient. - It was once a common choice, but its use has decreased due to increasing **bacterial resistance** and the emergence of other effective systemic options. *Systemic cephalosporins* - **Systemic cephalosporins**, such as **cephalexin**, are effective oral antibiotics for impetigo, particularly in cases of widespread disease or when topical therapy fails. - They are generally well-tolerated and provide good coverage against the typical causative organisms of impetigo.

Q: Dose of benzathine penicillin G to be given in patients with latent syphilis without penicillin allergy and normal CSF findings is

2.4 million units (mU) IM / week for 3 weeks. ***2.4 million units (mU) IM / week for 3 weeks*** - This is the **standard CDC-recommended regimen** for treating **latent syphilis** in patients without penicillin allergy and normal CSF findings. - The extended duration and specific dosage ensure adequate drug levels to eradicate the infection in its latent phase. *1.8 million units (mU) IM / week for 3 weeks* - This dose is **insufficient** for the treatment of latent syphilis. - Subtherapeutic dosing can lead to treatment failure and progression of the disease. *2.0 million units (mU) IM / week for 3 weeks* - While closer to the correct dose, 2.0 mU is **not the recommended standard** for latent syphilis. - Adherence to established guidelines is crucial for effective treatment of syphilis. *3.0 million units (mU) IM / week for 3 weeks* - This dosage is **higher than necessary** for latent syphilis and could potentially increase the risk of side effects, although usually not severe with single dose. - Overdosing does not offer additional therapeutic benefit for latent syphilis compared to the standard regimen.

Question 1

A 40-year-old woman presents with a painless ulcer on her genitalia and reports a recent new sexual partner. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Syphilis

Answer

Gonorrhea

Answer

Chlamydia

Answer

Genital herpes

Question 2

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for chancroid?

Accepted Answer

Azithromycin

Answer

Ceftriaxone

Answer

Penicillin

Answer

Doxycycline

Question 3

A 30-year-old male presents with a history of a painless genital ulcer followed by a generalized rash and mucous patches in the mouth. What is the appropriate treatment?

Accepted Answer

Penicillin G

Answer

Azithromycin

Answer

Doxycycline

Answer

Acyclovir

Question 4

A 25-year-old man develops hypopigmented atrophic patches with diminished sensation on his face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Indeterminate leprosy

Answer

Pityriasis alba

Answer

Pityriasis versicolor

Answer

Borderline leprosy

Question 5

A 27-year-old man presents with a painless genital ulcer and non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The VDRL test is positive. What is the next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Confirm with FTA-ABS

Answer

PCR for HSV

Answer

Empirical treatment with benzathine penicillin

Answer

Dark field microscopy for syphilis diagnosis

Question 6

A 26-year-old woman presents with a painless, indurated genital ulcer, and VDRL is positive. What is the first-line treatment?

Accepted Answer

Benzathine penicillin G

Answer

Doxycycline

Answer

Azithromycin

Answer

Ceftriaxone

Question 7

28 year old female complaints of foul smelling yellowish urethral discharge since 4 days. History of burning micturation. History of sexual contact with multiple partners 2 days before the onset of symptoms. Most likely diagnosis is ?

Accepted Answer

Gonococcal urethritis

Answer

Chlamydia

Answer

Chancroid

Answer

Non-infective urethritis

Question 8

Which of the following is the least preferred treatment for impetigo?

Accepted Answer

Topical gentamicin

Answer

Topical mupirocin

Answer

Systemic erythromycin

Answer

Systemic cephalosporins

Question 9

Dose of benzathine penicillin G to be given in patients with latent syphilis without penicillin allergy and normal CSF findings is

Accepted Answer

2.4 million units (mU) IM / week for 3 weeks

Answer

1.8 million units (mU) IM / week for 3 weeks

Answer

2.0 million units (mU) IM / week for 3 weeks

Answer

3.0 million units (mU) IM / week for 3 weeks

Question 10

A 10-year-old boy presents with an ulcerated lesion with undermined edges over the upper chest, accompanied by a satellite lesion in the anterior axillary fold for two months. Axillary lymph nodes are palpable. Histopathology reveals a dermal abscess with ill-defined histiocytes. AFB staining of the tissue is positive. Chest X-ray shows infiltrations and cavities. Mantoux test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Scrofuloderma

Answer

Skin abscess

Answer

Furuncle

Answer

Cellulitis

Answer

Erysipelas

Bacterial Skin Infections — MCQs

Bacterial Skin Infections — MCQs

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