UPSC-CMS 2019 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the statements regarding Calot's triangle are correct? 1. Common hepatic duct forms the medial boundary of the Calot's triangle 2. Inferior surface of the right lobe of the liver forms the superior boundary of Calot's triangle 3. Right hepatic artery is usually found as a content of the Calot's triangle 4. Cystic duct and medial border of gall bladder forms the lateral border of Calot's triangle Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2 and 4. ***1, 2 and 4*** - The **common hepatic duct** indeed forms the medial boundary, the **inferior surface of the right lobe of the liver** forms the superior boundary, and the **cystic duct along with the medial border of the gallbladder** forms the lateral boundary of Calot's triangle. - The **cystic artery** is typically a content of Calot's triangle [1], not the right hepatic artery. *1, 2 and 3* - While statements 1 and 2 are correct regarding Calot's triangle boundaries, statement 3 is incorrect as the **cystic artery**, not the right hepatic artery, is the usual content [1]. - The **right hepatic artery** typically branches off the proper hepatic artery superior to Calot's triangle, or runs *posterior* to this triangle, not within it [1]. *1, 3 and 4* - Statements 1 and 4 are correct descriptions of the boundaries of Calot's triangle. However, statement 3 is incorrect because the **right hepatic artery** is generally not found within Calot's triangle [1]. - The typical content found within this triangle is the **cystic artery**, which supplies the gallbladder [1]. *2, 3 and 4* - Statements 2 and 4 correctly describe the superior and lateral boundaries of Calot's triangle. Nevertheless, statement 3 is incorrect because the **right hepatic artery** is not a characteristic content of Calot's triangle [1]. - The **common hepatic duct** forms the medial boundary, which is statement 1 and is correct, but not included in this option.

Q: A few days following viral fever, a 50 year old female presented with pain in neck, fever, malaise and firm enlargement of both the lobes of thyroid. On investigation thyroid antibodies were normal & serum T4 was high normal. Probable diagnosis is:

Granulomatous thyroiditis. ***Granulomatous thyroiditis*** - The presentation of **neck pain**, **fever**, **malaise**, and **firm, enlarged thyroid lobes** following a viral fever, along with normal thyroid antibodies and high-normal T4, is highly characteristic of **subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)** [1]. - This condition is typically **post-viral**, causes inflammation leading to temporary hyperthyroidism due to hormone release, and is often painful [1]. *Lymphoma of thyroid* - Thyroid lymphoma usually presents as a **rapidly growing neck mass** in older individuals and is not typically preceded by a viral illness. - It is less commonly associated with pain and fever in this manner, and thyroid function can be variable. *Riedel's thyroiditis* - **Riedel's thyroiditis** is a rare, invasive fibrosis of the thyroid and surrounding structures, leading to a **rock-hard, painless goiter**. - It does not typically follow a viral infection with acute pain and fever or present with high-normal T4. *Autoimmune thyroiditis* - **Autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto's thyroiditis)** is characterized by elevated thyroid antibodies and typically presents with **hypothyroidism**, often with a **painless goiter**. - It does not usually follow a viral illness with acute pain and fever or cause temporary thyrotoxicosis with normal antibodies [1].

Q: A gentleman of 36 years presented with a long history of upper abdominal pain which was periodic and often occurred early morning. For last 3 months, he is having projectile vomiting, which is non bilious, unpleasant in nature with undigested food materials. On examination he appears unwell, dehydrated and seemed to have lost weight. Probably he is suffering from:

Gastric outlet obstruction. ***Gastric outlet obstruction*** - The combination of a long history of **periodic upper abdominal pain** followed by **projectile, non-bilious vomiting** containing undigested food is highly characteristic of gastric outlet obstruction. [1] - **Weight loss** and **dehydration** are common due to inadequate nutrient absorption and persistent vomiting. [1] *Superior mesenteric artery syndrome* - This syndrome is characterized by compression of the **duodenum** between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. - While it can cause vomiting and weight loss, the presenting symptoms are typically more acute or chronic pain related to postural changes, and not usually preceded by a long history of periodic upper abdominal pain suggesting prior peptic ulcer disease. *Carcinoma stomach* - While carcinoma of the stomach can cause weight loss and vomiting due to obstruction, the long history of **relieving periodic pain** prior to the onset of projectile vomiting is less typical. - Vomiting in carcinoma stomach might be bilious if the tumor is distal to the ampulla of Vater. *Gastro-oesophageal reflux with oesophagitis* - This condition primarily causes **heartburn**, regurgitation, and sometimes difficulty swallowing or chest pain. - It does not typically lead to repeated **projectile vomiting** of undigested food or significant weight loss in the absence of severe complications like stricture formation, which would present differently.

Q: A 40 year old female patient presents with colicky abdominal pain associated with episodes of mild diarrhoea for last 6 months accompanied with intermittent fever and weight loss. There are multiple discharging sinuses on perineal examination. The most likely clinical diagnosis in this patient is:

Crohn disease. ### Crohn disease - **Colicky abdominal pain**, **diarrhea**, **fever**, and **weight loss** are classic symptoms of Crohn disease, indicating chronic inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract [1]. - The presence of **discharging perineal sinuses** is highly characteristic of Crohn disease, as it commonly manifests with **perianal disease** including fistulas and abscesses [1]. ### Ileocaecal Tuberculosis - While ileocaecal tuberculosis can present with abdominal pain, diarrhea, fever, and weight loss, **perianal sinuses** are a less common feature compared to Crohn disease. - Diagnosis typically requires **histopathological evidence** of granulomas with caseous necrosis and acid-fast bacilli, which is not suggested by the initial presentation. ### Ulcerative colitis - **Ulcerative colitis** primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenesmus, but rarely causes **perianal fistulas** or sinuses [1]. - The disease typically presents with **continuous inflammation** extending proximally from the rectum, unlike the skip lesions seen in Crohn disease. ### Amoebic colitis - **Amoebic colitis** is an infectious cause of diarrhea, often bloody, with abdominal pain, but typically presents with a more **acute course** and is less commonly associated with chronic weight loss or perianal disease. - Diagnosis is confirmed by identifying **_Entamoeba histolytica_ trophozoites** or cysts in stool or tissue, and the presence of chronic discharging sinuses is not typical.

Q: A gentleman of 48 years was being worked up for hepatocellular function. He had no history or signs of encephalopathy. His serum bilirubin was 5 mg%, serum albumin was 3.9 gm%, International normalized ratio was 1.6. On ultrasound no free fluid was detected inside abdomen. As per Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP) classification, he was in:

CTP–B. CTP–B - This patient scores 2 points for bilirubin (3.5-5 mg%), 1 point for albumin (>3.5 gm%), 2 points for INR (1.7-2.3), 1 point for no encephalopathy, and 1 point for no ascites. This sums to **7 points**, which falls into the **CTP Class B** range (7-9 points). - The CTP classification is used to assess the prognosis of **chronic liver disease**, primarily **cirrhosis**, based on five clinical and laboratory criteria [1]. CTP–D - The CTP classification only includes A, B, and C; there is no CTP–D class. - This option is incorrect as it represents a classification that does not exist within the CTP scoring system. CTP–A - CTP Class A requires a total score of 5-6 points, indicating **mild liver dysfunction**. - This patient's calculated score of 7 points places him beyond the Class A category. CTP–C - CTP Class C requires a total score of 10-15 points, indicating **severe liver dysfunction**. - This patient's score of 7 points is considerably lower than the range for Class C.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding Paget's disease of nipple are correct? 1. It represents benign pathology of nipple areola complex 2. It is eczema like condition of nipple and areola 3. Erosion of nipple is seen 4. Nipple biopsy is required for definitive diagnosis Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2, 3 and 4. ***2, 3 and 4*** - **Paget's disease** presents as an **eczema-like rash** on the nipple and areola, and is characterized by **nipple erosion** [1] and ulceration. - It is an **intraepithelial adenocarcinoma** of the nipple [1], and a definitive diagnosis requires a **nipple biopsy** [1] to identify Paget's cells [2]. *2 and 4 only* - This option is incomplete as it misses the important clinical feature of **nipple erosion**, which is a common presentation of Paget's disease. - While it correctly identifies the eczema-like appearance and the need for biopsy, it understates the full clinical picture. *1, 2 and 3* - Statement 1 is incorrect because Paget's disease of the nipple is a **malignant condition** [2], not a benign one. - It arises from **ductal carcinoma in situ** [1] or invasive breast cancer extending to the nipple epidermis. *1, 3 and 4* - Statement 1 is incorrect as **Paget's disease is malignant**, representing an underlying breast cancer [2], not a benign pathology. - This option incorrectly classifies the disease as benign, which is a critical misunderstanding of its nature. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, pp. 1061-1062. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 456-457.

Q: Consider the following statements regarding Opportunistic post-splenectomy infections (OPSI): 1. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common causative agents 2. Risk is greatest in the patients who have undergone splenectomy for trauma 3. Risk is greatest within the first 2–3 years following splenectomy 4. Prophylactic vaccination should be done 2 weeks prior to elective splenectomy Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 3 and 4. ***1, 3 and 4*** - **Haemophilus influenzae**, **Neisseria meningitidis**, and **Streptococcus pneumoniae** are encapsulated bacteria that are the most common causative agents of **OPSI** due to impaired splenic clearance function. - The risk is **greatest within the first 2-3 years** following splenectomy, though it remains a lifelong concern, and prophylactic vaccination should be done **at least 2 weeks prior** to elective splenectomy for optimal immune response. *2, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes statement 2, as the **highest risk of OPSI** occurs in patients with **hematological conditions** (thalassemia, sickle cell disease, lymphoma), not trauma. - Splenectomy for **trauma** actually carries the **lowest risk** of OPSI compared to other indications due to the previously normal splenic function. *1, 2 and 3* - This option incorrectly includes statement 2 and excludes the correct statement 4 about **vaccination timing**. - Statement 2 is false because **hematological disorders** requiring splenectomy pose the **greatest OPSI risk**, not traumatic splenectomy. *1, 2 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes statement 2 about trauma having the highest risk, which is **false**. - It also excludes statement 3, which is correct regarding the **peak risk period** of 2-3 years post-splenectomy.

Q: A 48 year old male with the history of chronic duodenal ulcer presented in surgical emergency with the complaints of sudden severe pain in the abdomen. At presentation: Pulse = 120/m, BP = 90/60 mm of Hg Abdomen: Tenderness (+), Rigidity (+), Guarding (+) Respiratory Rate: 20/m X-ray: Gas under right dome of diaphragm The probable diagnosis is:

Perforation Peritonitis. ***Perforation Peritonitis*** - The patient's history of **chronic duodenal ulcer**, sudden severe abdominal pain, signs of **peritonitis** (**tenderness, rigidity, guarding**), and especially the X-ray finding of **gas under the right dome of the diaphragm** (indicating **pneumoperitoneum**) are all classic for a perforated viscus. - The **tachycardia** (Pulse = 120/m) and **hypotension** (BP = 90/60 mm Hg) further suggest a systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) or even **septic shock** due to peritonitis. *Acute appendicitis* - This typically presents with peri-umbilical pain migrating to the right lower quadrant, with localized tenderness and guarding, not diffuse peritonitis. - **Gas under the diaphragm** is not a feature of uncomplicated appendicitis but occurs with perforation of a hollow viscus. *Acute Pancreatitis* - While it can cause severe abdominal pain and signs of peritonitis, the pain often radiates to the back and is associated with elevated pancreatic enzymes. - **Gas under the diaphragm** is not a typical finding in acute pancreatitis unless there's a complication like colonic perforation. *Acute Myocardial infarction* - Though an MI can present with epigastric pain, it would not typically cause **diffuse abdominal tenderness, rigidity, guarding**, or **pneumoperitoneum**. - The primary symptoms would generally involve chest discomfort, and diagnostic tests would show cardiac enzyme elevation and EKG changes.

Q: A young sports person presented in surgical emergency with the complaints of severe pain in the groin area, extending into the scrotum and upper thigh. The pain is debilitating and he is not able to exercise. On examination there is tenderness in the region of Inguinal canal and pubic tubercle. He is probably suffering from:

Sportsman hernia. ***Sportsman hernia*** - The presentation of severe, debilitating groin pain extending to the scrotum and upper thigh, especially in a young sports person, is highly characteristic of a **sportsman's hernia** (also known as athletic pubalgia or Gilmore's groin). - This condition involves a **tear or weakening** of the posterior inguinal wall or associated musculature, leading to chronic groin pain exacerbated by physical activity. *Inguinal hernia* - This typically presents with a **visible bulge** in the groin that may or may not be painful, often increasing with straining but usually not as debilitating without incarceration. - While pain can extend to the scrotum, the primary complaint is usually the bulge and the pain is frequently relieved by lying down, unlike the chronic, activity-related pain described. *Femoral hernia* - A femoral hernia usually presents as a **lump below the inguinal ligament**, often more common in women, and can be easily confused with lymphadenopathy or a saphena varix. - While it can cause pain, it is less likely to produce the widespread, debilitating pain described as a primary symptom without signs of complications like incarceration. *Varicocele* - A varicocele is a condition of **enlarged veins within the scrotum** and typically presents as a "bag of worms" sensation or dull ache in the scrotum, often worse after standing for prolonged periods. - The pain is usually scrotal and not described as severe, debilitating groin pain extending to the upper thigh with tenderness in the inguinal canal, as seen in this case.

Question 1

Which of the statements regarding Calot's triangle are correct?

1. Common hepatic duct forms the medial boundary of the Calot's triangle
2. Inferior surface of the right lobe of the liver forms the superior boundary of Calot's triangle
3. Right hepatic artery is usually found as a content of the Calot's triangle
4. Cystic duct and medial border of gall bladder forms the lateral border of Calot's triangle

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 2

A few days following viral fever, a 50 year old female presented with pain in neck, fever, malaise and firm enlargement of both the lobes of thyroid. On investigation thyroid antibodies were normal & serum T4 was high normal. Probable diagnosis is:

Accepted Answer

Granulomatous thyroiditis

Answer

Lymphoma of thyroid

Answer

Riedel's thyroiditis

Answer

Autoimmune thyroiditis

Question 3

A gentleman of 36 years presented with a long history of upper abdominal pain which was periodic and often occurred early morning. For last 3 months, he is having projectile vomiting, which is non bilious, unpleasant in nature with undigested food materials. On examination he appears unwell, dehydrated and seemed to have lost weight. Probably he is suffering from:

Accepted Answer

Gastric outlet obstruction

Answer

Superior mesenteric artery syndrome

Answer

Carcinoma stomach

Answer

Gastro-oesophageal reflux with oesophagitis

Question 4

A 40 year old female patient presents with colicky abdominal pain associated with episodes of mild diarrhoea for last 6 months accompanied with intermittent fever and weight loss. There are multiple discharging sinuses on perineal examination. The most likely clinical diagnosis in this patient is:

Accepted Answer

Crohn disease

Answer

Ileocaecal Tuberculosis

Answer

Ulcerative colitis

Answer

Amoebic colitis

Question 5

A gentleman of 48 years was being worked up for hepatocellular function. He had no history or signs of encephalopathy. His serum bilirubin was 5 mg%, serum albumin was 3.9 gm%, International normalized ratio was 1.6. On ultrasound no free fluid was detected inside abdomen. As per Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP) classification, he was in:

Accepted Answer

CTP–B

Answer

CTP–D

Answer

CTP–A

Answer

CTP–C

Question 6

No increased relative risk of invasive breast carcinoma based on histopathological examination of benign breast tissue is for all of the following EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Solitary papilloma of lactiferous sinus

Answer

Squamous metaplasia

Answer

Usual ductal hyperplasia

Answer

Periductal mastitis

Question 7

Which of the following statements regarding Paget's disease of nipple are correct?

1. It represents benign pathology of nipple areola complex
2. It is eczema like condition of nipple and areola
3. Erosion of nipple is seen
4. Nipple biopsy is required for definitive diagnosis

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

2 and 4 only

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding Opportunistic post-splenectomy infections (OPSI):

1. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common causative agents
2. Risk is greatest in the patients who have undergone splenectomy for trauma
3. Risk is greatest within the first 2–3 years following splenectomy
4. Prophylactic vaccination should be done 2 weeks prior to elective splenectomy

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Question 9

A 48 year old male with the history of chronic duodenal ulcer presented in surgical emergency with the complaints of sudden severe pain in the abdomen. At presentation: Pulse = 120/m, BP = 90/60 mm of Hg Abdomen: Tenderness (+), Rigidity (+), Guarding (+) Respiratory Rate: 20/m X-ray: Gas under right dome of diaphragm The probable diagnosis is:

Accepted Answer

Perforation Peritonitis

Answer

Acute appendicitis

Answer

Acute Pancreatitis

Answer

Acute Myocardial infarction

Question 10

A young sports person presented in surgical emergency with the complaints of severe pain in the groin area, extending into the scrotum and upper thigh. The pain is debilitating and he is not able to exercise. On examination there is tenderness in the region of Inguinal canal and pubic tubercle. He is probably suffering from:

Accepted Answer

Sportsman hernia

Answer

Inguinal hernia

Answer

Femoral hernia

Answer

Varicocele

UPSC-CMS 2019

Anatomy

Internal Medicine

Pathology

Surgery