NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: What is the ionized calcium (IC) content of Ringer's lactate in mmol/L, and why is it clinically significant?

4 mmol/L. ***4 mmol/L*** - Ringer's lactate contains **calcium chloride**, contributing to its ionized calcium content of **4 mmol/L**. - This calcium is a critical component for **blood clotting** and **cardiac function**, making it clinically significant, particularly in large volume resuscitation. *130 mmol/L* - This value is close to the **sodium content** of Ringer's lactate, not its ionized calcium. - Sodium is the primary determinant of **fluid balance** and **osmolarity**, distinct from calcium's roles. *109 mmol/L* - This value approximates the **chloride content** of Ringer's lactate, which is important for acid-base balance but not its ionized calcium. - Chloride's primary role is in maintaining **electrical neutrality** and fluid distribution. *0 mmol/L* - Ringer's lactate is a **balanced electrolyte solution** and definitely contains calcium. - A value of 0 would indicate the absence of calcium, which would contradict its formulation and clinical utility, especially in scenarios requiring **electrolyte repletion**.

Q: Which of the following is not a feature of Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?

Normal C3 level. ***Normal C3 level*** - In Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), **C3 levels are typically decreased** due to complement consumption during the inflammatory process. [1] - A **normal C3 level** would not be consistent with PSGN, as it suggests no significant complement activation. *Increased urea* - Increased urea can occur due to **impaired renal function**, which is common in PSGN due to glomerular inflammation. [1] - It's a typical finding reflecting the kidneys' inability to excrete waste products properly. *HTN* - Hypertension is frequently associated with PSGN due to **volume overload** and activation of the renin-angiotensin system. [1] [2] - It is a common clinical feature that results from increased fluid retention. *Increased creatinine* - Increased creatinine levels indicate **renal impairment**, which is characteristic of PSGN as kidney function is affected during this condition. [1] - This finding highlights the reduction in glomerular filtration rate (GFR), typical in glomerulonephritis. [2]

Q: Reversible change from one cell type to another is known as -

Metaplasia. ***Metaplesia*** - Refers to the **reversible change** from one cell type to another in response to chronic irritation or damage [1][2]. - It often occurs as an adaptive response in **epithelial tissues**, such as in the respiratory tract in smokers [1][2]. *Hypertrophy* - Represents an **increase in cell size** rather than a change in cell type [2]. - It is often a response to increased functional demand, as seen in **cardiac muscle** in athletes. *Hyperplesia* - Refers to an **increase in cell number** within a tissue or organ, not a change in cell type [2]. - Common in conditions such as **benign prostatic hyperplasia** but does not involve differentiation into other cell types. *Dysplasia* - Indicates an **abnormal growth or development** of cells, leading to disordered morphology rather than a transformation into another cell type. - It is often a precursor to cancer but does not signify the reversible nature of metaplasia. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Cellular Responses to Stress and Toxic Insults: Adaptation, Injury, and Death, p. 49. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 85-92.

Q: What is the most common nephropathy associated with malignancy?

Membranous glomerulonephritis. ***Membranous glomerulonephritis*** - **Membranous glomerulonephritis** has the strongest and most frequent association with solid organ malignancies, particularly in older patients. - While other glomerulopathies can be linked to cancer, **membranous nephropathy** is the most common paraneoplastic glomerulopathy in adults. *Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)* - While FSGS can be associated with certain cancers, particularly hematological malignancies and HIV-associated nephropathy, it is **less common** than membranous nephropathy in solid tumors. - The link is often with **HIV-associated nephropathy** or direct tumor effects rather than a paraneoplastic syndrome. *Minimal change disease* - Minimal change disease is predominantly seen in **children** and is less frequently associated with malignancy compared to membranous nephropathy. - When associated with malignancy, it is typically with **lymphoproliferative disorders** like Hodgkin lymphoma. *IgA nephropathy* - **IgA nephropathy** is the most common primary glomerulonephritis worldwide but has a **weak and inconsistent association** with malignancy. - Its presence alongside cancer is often coincidental rather than directly causative.

Q: Characteristic feature of IgA nephropathy?

Serum complement level is normal. ***Serum complement level is normal*** - In **IgA nephropathy**, serum complement levels remain **normal** as this condition is not associated with complement consumption [1]. - This distinguishes it from other glomerulonephritides like **membranoproliferative GN**, where complement levels may be decreased. *Gross hematuria presents after 10 days* - Gross hematuria in IgA nephropathy often occurs **upon infection** or triggers, but not strictly after a set duration like 10 days [1]. - Typically, hematuria is seen with **episodic** flares rather than presenting consistently after a specific time frame. *More common in old age* - IgA nephropathy is actually more common in **young adults**, particularly males, rather than the elderly. - It is not characterized by age but rather often presents in **teenage years to early adulthood**. *It is a type of membranoproliferative GN* - IgA nephropathy is a **separate entity** and is predominantly characterized by the deposition of IgA in the mesangial regions [1], not classified under membranoproliferative GN. - This condition has distinct **pathological features** and immunological characteristics, differentiating it from membranoproliferative forms. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 928-929.

Q: Antidepressant drug used in nocturnal enuresis is:

Imipramine. ***Imipramine*** - **Imipramine**, a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)**, is frequently used off-label for **nocturnal enuresis** in children [1]. - Its mechanism of action in enuresis is thought to involve a combination of anticholinergic effects (which relax the bladder detrusor muscle) and central nervous system effects (which may increase bladder capacity and arousal from sleep) [1]. *Fluoxetine* - **Fluoxetine** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** and is primarily used for depression, anxiety disorders, and OCD [2]. - It is not indicated for the treatment of nocturnal enuresis and does not have the same bladder-relaxing or arousal-modulating properties as imipramine in this context. *Trazodone* - **Trazodone** is a **serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor (SARI)**, commonly prescribed for depression and insomnia due to its prominent sedative effects. - It is not used for nocturnal enuresis and its mechanism of action does not confer benefits for bladder control. *Sertraline* - **Sertraline** is another **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** used for a wide range of psychiatric conditions, including depression, anxiety, and panic disorder [2]. - Like fluoxetine, it is not an appropriate treatment for nocturnal enuresis and lacks the specific known effects beneficial for this condition.

Q: In an ECG the cardiac event corresponding to the ST segment is:

Ventricular repolarisation. ***Ventricular repolarisation*** - The **ST segment** represents the **early phase of ventricular repolarization**, corresponding to the **plateau phase (Phase 2)** of the ventricular action potential. - During this phase, the ventricles are completely depolarized and calcium influx balances potassium efflux, creating an isoelectric (flat) segment on the ECG. - The ST segment extends from the **end of the QRS complex (J point)** to the **beginning of the T wave**, after which rapid repolarization occurs. - Together, the **ST segment and T wave** represent the complete process of ventricular repolarization. *Atrial depolarisation* - **Atrial depolarization** is represented by the **P wave** on the ECG, not the ST segment. - This occurs first in the cardiac cycle, triggering atrial contraction and filling of the ventricles. *Ventricular depolarisation* - **Ventricular depolarization** is represented by the **QRS complex**, which immediately **precedes** the ST segment. - This event triggers ventricular contraction (systole) and occurs before the plateau phase. *Atrial repolarisation* - **Atrial repolarization** occurs during the QRS complex and is **obscured** by the much larger electrical signal from ventricular depolarization. - It is not visible as a separate deflection on the standard ECG.

Q: Isocapnic buffering is?

Normal pCO2 with increased CO2. ***Normal pCO2 with increased CO2*** - Isocapnic buffering refers to the process where the body buffers an **increase in lactic acid** or other metabolic acids without a significant change (maintaining it within a normal range) in **arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2)**. - This is achieved by an increase in **ventilation** stimulated by the acid, which expels more CO2 to compensate for the additional CO2 produced from the buffering reaction, thereby keeping pCO2 stable. *Increased pCO2 with increased CO2* - This scenario would indicate **hypoventilation** or a failure of the respiratory compensation mechanism to maintain pCO2 within normal limits during an increased metabolic CO2 load. - **Increased pCO2** would signify a state of **respiratory acidosis** or inadequate respiratory compensation, not isocapnic buffering. *Increased pCO2 with decreased CO2* - This statement is inherently contradictory; it is not possible to have an **increased pCO2** simultaneously with **decreased CO2** in the context of buffering. - **pCO2** is a measure of the partial pressure of carbon dioxide, directly related to the amount of CO2 present and dissolved in the blood. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because "Normal pCO2 with increased CO2" accurately describes the physiological phenomenon of **isocapnic buffering**.

Q: Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle?

Progesterone. ***Progesterone*** - **Progesterone**, secreted by the **corpus luteum** after ovulation, is crucial for maintaining the luteal phase by preparing the **endometrium** for implantation. - It causes the endometrial lining to thicken and become more vascularized, creating a suitable environment for a fertilized egg. *Estrogen* - While **estrogen** is important throughout the menstrual cycle for endometrial proliferation, its primary role is in the **follicular phase**, not the maintenance of the luteal phase. - Estrogen levels are higher during the follicular phase, promoting the growth of the dominant follicle. *Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)* - **FSH** is primarily responsible for stimulating the growth and development of **ovarian follicles** during the follicular phase. - Its levels decrease significantly after ovulation, and it does not play a direct role in maintaining the luteal phase. *Luteinizing hormone (LH)* - **LH** triggers **ovulation** and the formation of the **corpus luteum** from the ruptured follicle. - While essential for initiating the luteal phase, its levels decline afterward, and it's not the primary hormone for *maintaining* the corpus luteum's function.

Q: Which part of the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for secreting catecholamines?

Adrenal medulla. ***Adrenal medulla*** - The adrenal medulla acts as a modified **sympathetic ganglion**, directly innervated by **preganglionic sympathetic fibers**. - Upon stimulation, it releases a high concentration of **epinephrine** (adrenaline) and a smaller amount of **norepinephrine** (noradrenaline) into the bloodstream, acting as hormones. *Cardiac ganglion* - **Cardiac ganglia** are parasympathetic ganglia located in the heart, involved in regulating heart rate and contractility via acetylcholine release. - They do not secrete **catecholamines** but rather act as relay stations for parasympathetic innervation. *Cervical sympathetic chain* - The **cervical sympathetic chain** primarily innervates structures in the head, neck, and upper limbs, influencing functions like pupils, salivary glands, and sweat glands. - While it contains sympathetic neurons, its primary role is not the systemic release of **catecholamines** into the bloodstream. *Thoracic sympathetic chain* - The **thoracic sympathetic chain** provides sympathetic innervation to organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities, influencing heart rate, bronchodilation, and visceral blood flow. - Like other sympathetic ganglia, it releases norepinephrine at target organ synapses, but it does not serve as a major endocrine gland for systemic catecholamine release.

Question 1

What is the ionized calcium (IC) content of Ringer's lactate in mmol/L, and why is it clinically significant?

Accepted Answer

4 mmol/L

Answer

0 mmol/L

Answer

130 mmol/L

Answer

109 mmol/L

Question 2

Which of the following is not a feature of Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?

Accepted Answer

Normal C3 level

Answer

HTN

Answer

Increased urea

Answer

Increased creatinine

Question 3

Reversible change from one cell type to another is known as -

Accepted Answer

Metaplasia

Answer

Hypertrophy

Answer

Dysplasia

Answer

Hyperplasia

Question 4

What is the most common nephropathy associated with malignancy?

Accepted Answer

Membranous glomerulonephritis

Answer

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

Answer

Minimal change disease

Answer

IgA nephropathy

Question 5

Characteristic feature of IgA nephropathy?

Accepted Answer

Serum complement level is normal

Answer

More common in old age

Answer

It is a type of membranoproliferative GN

Answer

Gross hematuria presents after 10 days

Question 6

Antidepressant drug used in nocturnal enuresis is:

Accepted Answer

Imipramine

Answer

Fluoxetine

Answer

Trazodone

Answer

Sertraline

Question 7

In an ECG the cardiac event corresponding to the ST segment is:

Accepted Answer

Ventricular repolarisation

Answer

Atrial depolarisation

Answer

Ventricular depolarisation

Answer

Atrial repolarisation

Question 8

Isocapnic buffering is?

Accepted Answer

Normal pCO2 with increased CO2

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Increased pCO2 with increased CO2

Answer

Increased pCO2 with decreased CO2

Question 9

Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle?

Accepted Answer

Progesterone

Answer

Estrogen

Answer

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Answer

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Question 10

Which part of the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for secreting catecholamines?

Accepted Answer

Adrenal medulla

Answer

Cardiac ganglion

Answer

Cervical sympathetic chain

Answer

Thoracic sympathetic chain

NEET-PG 2015

Anesthesiology

Internal Medicine

Pathology

Pharmacology

Physiology