NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?

Passive. ***Passive*** - Under the NTEP, **passive screening** involves individuals presenting to health facilities with symptoms suggestive of TB. - This method relies on **patient self-reporting** and healthcare provider suspicion, rather than active outreach. - Passive case finding is the **primary screening strategy** used across the general population in the NTEP framework. *Active* - **Active screening** involves community-based interventions to proactively identify individuals with TB, often in high-risk populations. - While active case finding is crucial for specific vulnerable groups (contacts, HIV patients, etc.), it is **not the primary screening method** under the standard NTEP framework for initial detection across the entire population. *Mass* - **Mass screening** involves testing large numbers of people in the general population, regardless of symptoms, to detect disease. - This is generally **cost-prohibitive** and not routinely implemented as a primary screening strategy for TB by the NTEP due to resource limitations and low yield in the general population. *None of the options* - **Passive screening** is indeed a primary method used under the NTEP, making this option incorrect. - The NTEP heavily relies on individuals seeking care when they experience symptoms, which aligns with the definition of passive case finding.

Q: In a community of 1,000,000 population, 105 children were born in a year, out of which 5 were stillbirths and 4 died within the first year of life. What is the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?

40. ***40*** - **Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)** = (Deaths in first year of life / Live births) × 1,000 - Live births = Total births - Stillbirths = 105 - 5 = **100** - IMR = (4 / 100) × 1,000 = **40 per 1,000 live births** - Stillbirths are excluded from both numerator and denominator as IMR only counts deaths after live birth *90* - This would result from incorrectly using total births (105) instead of live births (100) in the denominator - Wrong calculation: (4 / 105) × 1,000 ≈ 38, not 90 - This option represents a common error but with incorrect arithmetic *120* - This could result from including stillbirths in the numerator: (5+4) / 100 × 1,000 = 90, not 120 - Or from other miscalculations mixing up the numerator and denominator - Does not follow the standard IMR formula *150* - This represents a significant calculation error - May result from using wrong base (per 100 instead of per 1,000) or including stillbirths incorrectly - Such high IMR does not match the given data of 4 infant deaths per 100 live births

Q: What is the range of values for the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)?

0 to 100. ***0 to 100*** - The **Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)** is an index that measures the quality of life or well-being of a country, with values ranging from **0 (worst)** to **100 (best)**. - This standardized range allows for easy comparison of living standards and societal progress across different nations. *0 to 10* - This range is too small and does not accurately represent the comprehensive scoring system used for the **PQLI**, which aggregates multiple indicators. - While some individual metrics might use a 0-10 scale, the composite PQLI itself uses a broader range. *0 to 50* - This range is insufficient to capture the full spectrum of development indicators factored into the **PQLI**. - A maximum value of 50 would compress the data too much, making fine distinctions between countries less apparent. *100 to 200* - The **PQLI** is capped at 100, which signifies the highest possible quality of life; therefore, values above 100 are not possible. - This range suggests an overly optimistic or unstandardized index, which is not the case for PQLI.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding polio vaccination is false?

First OPV is given at 4 weeks. ***First OPV is given at 4 weeks*** - The first dose of **Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)** is typically given at birth, often referred to as the **"zero dose,"** before the 4-week mark. - Subsequent doses are given at 6, 10, and 14 weeks of age as part of the routine immunization schedule, making the statement that the first OPV is given at 4 weeks false. *OPV induces both humoral and intestinal immunity* - **OPV** is a **live attenuated vaccine** that replicates in the gut, thereby stimulating both a systemic **humoral immune response** (producing antibodies in the bloodstream) and **local intestinal immunity** (IgA antibodies in the gut). - This **intestinal immunity** is crucial for preventing viral replication in the gut and reducing transmission. *IPV is given intramuscularly* - The **Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)**, also known as the **Salk vaccine**, is administered via injection, specifically through the **intramuscular route**. - This method ensures systemic absorption and the development of **humoral immunity**. *Both killed and live vaccines are available* - There are two main types of polio vaccines: **Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)**, which is a **live attenuated vaccine**, and **Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)**, which is a **killed vaccine**. - Both types have been instrumental in polio eradication efforts, each with distinct advantages and disadvantages.

Q: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the strategic plan for malaria control 2012-2017?

Objective is API < 1 per 10,000. ***Objective is API < 1 per 10,000*** - The correct objective for the **Annual Parasite Incidence (API)** in the 2012-2017 strategic plan for malaria control was to reduce it to **less than 1 per 1,000 population**, not 1 per 10,000, making this statement incorrect. - This metric measures the number of new malaria cases per 1,000 people per year. *50% reduction in mortality by 2017* - A key objective of the **National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India** (which this strategic plan aimed to contribute to) was indeed to achieve a significant reduction in malaria-related mortality. - Specifically, aiming for a **50% reduction in mortality** by 2017 was a stated goal to lessen the disease burden. *Annual incidence < 1 per 1000 by 2017* - One of the primary goals of the **Malaria Control Strategic Plan 2012-2017** was to reduce the annual parasite incidence (API) to **less than 1 per 1,000 population** in all endemic areas. - This target focused on decreasing the occurrence of new malaria cases. *Complete treatment to 100% of patients* - A core component of malaria control strategies emphasizes ensuring that **all confirmed malaria cases** receive complete and effective treatment. - Achieving **100% complete treatment adherence** is crucial to prevent drug resistance and eliminate the parasite reservoir.

Q: Which of the following statements about pathogenic mosquitoes is correct?

Anopheles mosquitoes are known for transmitting malaria.. ***Correct: Anopheles mosquitoes are known for transmitting malaria.*** - **Anopheles mosquitoes** are the **primary and only vectors** for **malaria**, a parasitic disease caused by Plasmodium parasites. - They transmit the parasite through their **saliva** when they bite humans, typically during **dusk and dawn**. - This is the most significant pathogenic association among the options. *Incorrect: Mansonia mosquitoes lay their eggs in rafts.* - **Mansonia mosquitoes** lay their eggs in **clusters attached to underwater parts of aquatic plants**, not in rafts. - **Culex mosquitoes** are the ones that lay their eggs in **raft-like formations** on water surfaces. *Incorrect: Culex mosquitoes are primarily vectors for West Nile virus.* - While **Culex mosquitoes** can transmit West Nile virus, in the **Indian context** they are primarily known as vectors for **lymphatic filariasis** (Wuchereria bancrofti) and **Japanese encephalitis**. - West Nile virus is more relevant in Western countries and is not the primary disease association for Culex in India. *Incorrect: Aedes mosquitoes are known for their distinctive black and white striped markings.* - While **Aedes aegypti** and **Aedes albopictus** do have **black and white striped markings**, this is a **morphological characteristic** rather than a primary **pathogenic association**. - The question asks about pathogenic mosquitoes, and Aedes is better characterized by its **disease transmission** (dengue, Zika, chikungunya, yellow fever) rather than its appearance. - As a pathogenic mosquito, its **daytime biting behavior** and **urban breeding habits** are more relevant than its markings.

Q: Behavioral surveillance survey is done in?

AIDS. ***AIDS*** - Behavioral surveillance surveys are crucial for understanding and monitoring behaviors related to **HIV transmission**, such as sexual practices and drug use, among at-risk populations. - These surveys help in designing and evaluating **prevention programs** by identifying trends in risky behaviors and knowledge, attitudes, and practices (KAP) concerning HIV. *Filaria* - Surveillance for filaria primarily involves **entomological surveys** (mosquito monitoring) and **parasitological surveys** (blood examinations for microfilariae). - Behavioral aspects are less central to direct surveillance compared to disease vectors and infection rates. *TB* - Tuberculosis surveillance mainly focuses on **case detection**, **treatment outcomes**, and monitoring **drug resistance** through clinical and laboratory data. - While patient adherence to treatment involves behavior, there isn't a dedicated "behavioral surveillance survey" method specifically for TB. *Malaria* - Malaria surveillance involves monitoring **parasitemia rates**, **vector populations**, and **antimalarial drug resistance**. - Behavioral components like bed net usage are important, but the primary surveillance methods are not termed "behavioral surveillance surveys" in the same structured way as for HIV.

Q: Which of the following vaccines is not freeze-dried?

Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus (DPT) Vaccine. ***Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus (DPT) Vaccine*** - The DPT vaccine is a **liquid vaccine** that contains inactivated toxins and bacterial components, making it stable in liquid form. - It does not require **freeze-drying** because its components are chemically stable and do not degrade significantly in solution. *Measles Vaccine* - The measles vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine** that needs to be freeze-dried to maintain the viability and stability of the live virus. - Freeze-drying helps preserve the vaccine's potency by removing water, which prevents degradation during storage and transport. *Rubella Vaccine* - Similar to the measles vaccine, the rubella vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine** and is therefore provided in a freeze-dried form. - This process ensures the long-term stability and efficacy of the viral components, which would otherwise degrade in a liquid state. *BCG Vaccine* - The BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine is a **live attenuated bacterial vaccine** used against tuberculosis, and it is also manufactured as a freeze-dried product. - Freeze-drying is essential for maintaining the viability of the live attenuated *Mycobacterium bovis* strain.

Q: Which of the following statements about influenza infectivity is correct?

All of the options are correct.. ***All of the options are correct.*** - All statements provided accurately describe aspects of influenza infectivity and epidemiology. - The **communicable period**, the **primary source of infection**, and the potential for **subclinical cases** are all characteristic features of influenza. *Communicable period is 1 day before to 5-7 days after the onset of symptoms* - This statement is accurate, as influenza is transmissible **before symptom onset** and for several days afterward, which contributes to its rapid spread. - Peak viral shedding often occurs just before and in the first few days of symptomatic illness. - Adults typically shed virus from 1 day before to 5-7 days after symptom onset (can be longer in children and immunocompromised individuals). *The primary source of infection is a clinical case.* - This is correct, as **symptomatic individuals (clinical cases) are the PRIMARY source** of influenza virus transmission to others. - Respiratory droplets produced by coughing, sneezing, or talking from an infected person are the main mode of spread. - While subclinical cases can transmit, clinical cases with overt symptoms produce more respiratory droplets and are the major drivers of transmission. *There can be subclinical cases of influenza.* - This statement is correct; many individuals infected with influenza virus experience **mild or asymptomatic infections** (subclinical cases). - These subclinical cases can still transmit the virus, though typically to a lesser extent than symptomatic cases, further complicating control efforts.

Question 1

Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?

Accepted Answer

Passive

Answer

Active

Answer

Mass

Answer

None of the options

Question 2

In a community of 1,000,000 population, 105 children were born in a year, out of which 5 were stillbirths and 4 died within the first year of life. What is the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?

Accepted Answer

40

Answer

90

Answer

120

Answer

150

Question 3

What is the range of values for the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)?

Accepted Answer

0 to 100

Answer

0 to 10

Answer

0 to 50

Answer

100 to 200

Question 4

Multiphasic screening means-

Accepted Answer

Application of two or more screening tests in combination at one time

Answer

Application of two or more screening tests in combination at different geographical areas

Answer

Application of separate screening tests for different diseases

Answer

Application of two or more screening tests in combination at different times

Question 5

Which of the following statements regarding polio vaccination is false?

Accepted Answer

First OPV is given at 4 weeks

Answer

OPV induces both humoral and intestinal immunity

Answer

IPV is given intramuscularly

Answer

Both killed and live vaccines are available

Question 6

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the strategic plan for malaria control 2012-2017?

Accepted Answer

Objective is API < 1 per 10,000

Answer

50% reduction in mortality by 2017

Answer

Complete treatment to 100% of patients

Answer

Annual incidence < 1 per 1000 by 2017

Question 7

Which of the following statements about pathogenic mosquitoes is correct?

Accepted Answer

Anopheles mosquitoes are known for transmitting malaria.

Answer

Mansonia mosquitoes lay their eggs in rafts.

Answer

Culex mosquitoes are primarily vectors for West Nile virus.

Answer

Aedes mosquitoes are known for their distinctive black and white striped markings.

Question 8

Behavioral surveillance survey is done in?

Accepted Answer

AIDS

Answer

TB

Answer

Filaria

Answer

Malaria

Question 9

Which of the following vaccines is not freeze-dried?

Accepted Answer

Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus (DPT) Vaccine

Answer

Measles Vaccine

Answer

Rubella Vaccine

Answer

BCG Vaccine

Question 10

Which of the following statements about influenza infectivity is correct?

Accepted Answer

All of the options are correct.

Answer

Communicable period is 1 day before to 5-7 days after the onset of symptoms

Answer

There can be subclinical cases of influenza.

Answer

The primary source of infection is a clinical case.

NEET-PG 2015 — Community Medicine