NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following arteries does NOT contribute to Little's area?

Posterior Ethmoidal artery. Posterior Ethmoidal artery - The posterior ethmoidal artery primarily supplies the posterior ethmoidal cells and part of the sphenoid sinus, but it does not contribute to the vascular plexus in Little's area. - Little's area, also known as Kiesselbach's plexus, is formed by anastomoses of several arteries on the anterior nasal septum. Sphenopalatine artery - The sphenopalatine artery, a terminal branch of the maxillary artery, is a major contributor to Little's area through its septal branch. - It supplies a significant portion of the nasal septum and is frequently involved in posterior epistaxis. Greater palatine artery - The greater palatine artery, a branch of the descending palatine artery (from the maxillary artery), enters the nasal cavity through the incisive canal and contributes to Little's area on the nasal septum. - It primarily supplies the hard palate and then anastomoses with other vessels in the anterior nasal septum. Anterior Ethmoidal artery - The anterior ethmoidal artery, a branch of the ophthalmic artery, is a key contributor to Little's area. - It supplies the anterior and middle ethmoidal cells and also contributes to the blood supply of the dura mater.

Q: In which condition is the Albumin to Globulin (A:G) ratio maintained?

Nephritic syndrome. ***Nephritic syndrome*** - In nephritic syndrome, the **glomerular filtration is often preserved**, allowing for the maintenance of A:G ratio despite the presence of hematuria and proteinuria [1]. - The condition typically leads to a **moderate degree of proteinuria**, retaining a relatively normal serum albumin level [1]. *Multiple myeloma* - In multiple myeloma, there is often a **high level of paraproteins** leading to a significant drop in albumin, affecting the A:G ratio. - Patients frequently exhibit **renal impairment**, resulting in a disrupted A:G ratio due to increased urinary protein loss. *Protein losing enteropathy* - This condition causes **loss of proteins** like albumin through the gastrointestinal tract, leading to **hypoalbuminemia** and altered A:G ratio. - It is characterized by **diarrhea** and fluid accumulation, further impacting the protein status in circulation. *Cirrhosis* - Cirrhosis leads to **decreased albumin synthesis**, resulting in a low serum albumin and an altered A:G ratio. - The condition is associated with **portal hypertension** and ascites, complicating the biochemical status.

Q: Which of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?

Hyperglycemia. ***Hyperglycemia*** - Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions contain a high concentration of **dextrose** (glucose), which can lead to elevated blood glucose levels, especially in patients with pre-existing metabolic issues or high infusion rates. - The sudden and continuous infusion of carbohydrates can overwhelm the body's **insulin response**, resulting in hyperglycemia [3]. *Hyperkalemia* - **Hypokalemia**, rather than hyperkalemia, is a more common electrolyte disturbance associated with TPN due to intracellular shifts of potassium with glucose metabolism [2]. - While TPN solutions do contain potassium, hyperkalemia is generally rare unless there is significant renal impairment or excessive potassium supplementation. *Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia* - While **hyperglycemia** is a common complication, **hyperkalemia** is not; in fact, hypokalemia is a more frequent concern linked to the significant glucose load in TPN. - This option incorrectly pairs a common complication with one that is rare and generally only seen in specific circumstances. *Hyperosmolar dehydration* - This condition, also known as **hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)**, is a severe complication that can arise from uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where high glucose levels lead to osmotic diuresis and severe dehydration [1]. - While hyperglycemia is a precursor to hyperosmolar dehydration, the direct complication of TPN administration itself is the hyperglycemia.

Q: This patient came to the casualty with palpitations. His ECG has been shown below. What is your diagnosis?

Supraventricular tachycardia. ***Supraventricular tachycardia*** - The ECG shows a **narrow QRS complex tachycardia** (QRS < 0.12 seconds) with a **regular rhythm** and a **rapid ventricular rate** of 150-250 bpm, which is characteristic of SVT. The P waves may be hidden within the QRS or T waves. - While specific findings for SVT types (e.g., AVNRT, AVRT) aren't detailed without more specific ECG leads or maneuvers, the overall morphology points to a supraventricular origin. *Ventricular tachycardia* - **Ventricular tachycardia** is characterized by a **wide QRS complex** (> 0.12 seconds) tachycardia, which is not seen in the provided ECG. - It often presents with **AV dissociation** (P waves dissociated from QRS complexes) and fusion beats, which are absent here. *A-V dissociation* - **AV dissociation** refers to the atria and ventricles beating independently, which can be seen in VT or complete heart block. - It is a specific ECG finding and not a primary diagnosis, especially in the context of a narrow complex tachycardia like the one shown. *Sinus tachycardia* - **Sinus tachycardia** also presents with a narrow QRS complex but is characterized by a **normal P wave morphology** preceding each QRS complex with a rate typically not exceeding 150 bpm in an adult. - The rate in the given ECG is significantly higher, and distinct P waves are likely not preceding every QRS complex, ruling out sinus tachycardia.

Q: Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by ?

Loss of peripheral vision. ***Loss of peripheral vision*** - Retinitis pigmentosa is a group of genetic disorders that cause **progressive degeneration of photoreceptor cells**, primarily rods, which are concentrated in the periphery of the retina. - This degeneration leads to a gradual **loss of peripheral vision**, often beginning with **night blindness** and progressing to tunnel vision. *Loss of central vision* - Loss of central vision is characteristic of conditions affecting the **macula**, such as **age-related macular degeneration** or certain forms of **macular dystrophy**. - While later stages of retinitis pigmentosa can affect central vision, the initial and primary characteristic is loss of peripheral vision. *Tubular vision* - **Tubular vision** is an advanced stage of peripheral vision loss, where the visual field shrinks to a narrow central area, resembling looking through a tube. - While it can be a consequence of retinitis pigmentosa, it is a description of the **extent of visual field constriction** rather than the primary characteristic of the disease itself. *Visual field constriction* - **Visual field constriction** is a general term for any reduction in the extent of the visual field. - While retinitis pigmentosa certainly causes visual field constriction, the term "loss of peripheral vision" is more specific to the initial and dominant pattern of vision loss in this condition.

Q: Which of the following statements about the c-wave in electroretinogram (ERG) is most accurate?

The 'c' wave is a slow positive wave.. ***The 'c' wave is a slow positive wave.*** - The **c-wave** in an ERG is generated by the **retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)** and is characterized by its **slow, positive deflection**. - It reflects the **hyperpolarization** of the RPE cells in response to light stimulation. *The 'c' wave is a negative wave.* - This statement is incorrect because the **c-wave** is consistently observed as a **positive deflection** in the ERG tracing. - A negative wave like the **a-wave** is generated by photoreceptor hyperpolarization, which is a different component. *The 'b' wave arises primarily from photoreceptors.* - The **b-wave** primarily arises from the **Müller cells** and **bipolar cells**, not directly from photoreceptors. - Photoreceptor activity is primarily reflected in the **a-wave**. *The 'a' wave is a positive wave.* - The **a-wave** is a **negative deflection** in the ERG, representing the **hyperpolarization of photoreceptors** in response to light. - It is the earliest component of the ERG waveform.

Q: Krukenberg spindles -

Involve posterior surface of cornea. **Involve posterior surface of cornea** - **Krukenberg spindles** are vertical, spindle-shaped deposits of **pigment (melanin)** on the posterior surface of the cornea. - They are a characteristic finding in **pigment dispersion syndrome** and **pigmentary glaucoma**, where iris pigment is released and circulated in the aqueous humor, eventually depositing on the corneal endothelium. *Involve anterior surface of cornea* - Deposits on the anterior corneal surface are less common and typically indicate external factors or specific corneal dystrophies, not Krukenberg spindles. - **Krukenberg spindles** are specifically formed by pigment circulating within the anterior chamber, which deposits on the posterior corneal surface due to aqueous humor flow. *Involve anterior lens surface* - Pigment deposits can occur on the anterior lens capsule, but these are typically diffuse or in a "bull's eye" pattern and are not referred to as **Krukenberg spindles**. - **Krukenberg spindles** are defined by their specific "spindle" shape and location on the cornea. *Involve posterior surface of lens* - Deposits on the posterior lens surface are usually associated with specific conditions like **uveitis** (posterior synechiae) or related to retinal issues, not pigment dispersion syndrome or **Krukenberg spindles**. - The formation of **Krukenberg spindles** is directly linked to the flow of aqueous humor and gravity affecting pigment particles in the anterior chamber.

Q: At what age do the proportions of intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF) in a child approximate those of an adult?

2 years. ***2 years*** - By the age of **2 years**, the relative proportions of intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF) in a child reach levels comparable to those found in adults. - Infants have a significantly higher percentage of ECF, which gradually decreases as they grow and mature. - This represents the key transition point where adult fluid compartment ratios are first approximated. *1 year* - At **1 year of age**, the ECF proportion is still relatively higher than in adults, though it has decreased from neonatal levels. - The shift towards adult fluid proportions is ongoing and not yet complete. *3 years* - By **3 years of age**, the fluid proportions are already well-established at adult levels, as this milestone is reached by age 2. - This age comes after the initial approximation point, so it is not the earliest age when adult proportions are reached. *4 years* - At **4 years of age**, the child's fluid distribution is well within adult proportions. - The main transition period for fluid compartment ratios is usually completed by age 2, making this age too late to represent the approximation point.

Q: What is the drug of choice for the treatment of kala-azar?

Liposomal Amphotericin B. ***Liposomal Amphotericin B*** - It is currently considered the **drug of choice** for treating **visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)** due to its high efficacy and better tolerability profile compared to conventional amphotericin B. - The **liposomal formulation** allows for targeted delivery to macrophages, where *Leishmania* parasites reside, reducing systemic toxicity. *Amphotericin B* - While effective against *Leishmania*, conventional **Amphotericin B deoxycholate** is associated with significant **nephrotoxicity** and other severe side effects. - It is generally reserved for cases where liposomal amphotericin B is unavailable or as an alternative in specific clinical situations. *Quinine* - **Quinine** is an **antimalarial drug** primarily used for the treatment of *Plasmodium falciparum* malaria. - It has no significant efficacy against *Leishmania* species, which are the causative agents of kala-azar. *Paromomycin* - **Paromomycin** is an **aminoglycoside antibiotic** that can be used as an alternative treatment for visceral leishmaniasis, especially in combination therapies. - Although effective, it is generally not considered the first-line **drug of choice** globally, and its efficacy can vary by region.

Question 1

Which of the following arteries does NOT contribute to Little's area?

Accepted Answer

Posterior Ethmoidal artery

Answer

Sphenopalatine artery

Answer

Greater palatine artery

Answer

Anterior Ethmoidal artery

Question 2

In which condition is the Albumin to Globulin (A:G) ratio maintained?

Accepted Answer

Nephritic syndrome

Answer

Cirrhosis

Answer

Protein losing enteropathy

Answer

Multiple myeloma

Question 3

Which of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?

Accepted Answer

Hyperglycemia

Answer

Hyperkalemia

Answer

Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia

Answer

Hyperosmolar dehydration

Question 4

This patient came to the casualty with palpitations. His ECG has been shown below. What is your diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Supraventricular tachycardia

Answer

Ventricular tachycardia

Answer

A-V dissociation

Answer

Sinus tachycardia

Question 5

Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by ?

Accepted Answer

Loss of peripheral vision

Answer

Loss of central vision

Answer

Visual field constriction

Answer

Tubular vision

Question 6

Which of the following statements about the c-wave in electroretinogram (ERG) is most accurate?

Accepted Answer

The 'c' wave is a slow positive wave.

Answer

The 'c' wave is a negative wave.

Answer

The 'b' wave arises primarily from photoreceptors.

Answer

The 'a' wave is a positive wave.

Question 7

Krukenberg spindles -

Accepted Answer

Involve posterior surface of cornea

Answer

Involve anterior surface of cornea

Answer

Involve anterior lens surface

Answer

Involve posterior surface of lens

Question 8

What is a watershed infarct in the brain?

Accepted Answer

Occurs in the border zones between major arteries

Answer

Occurs in the areas supplied by only one artery

Answer

Occurs in the terminal portion of main arteries

Answer

Occurs only in areas with complete arterial occlusion

Question 9

At what age do the proportions of intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF) in a child approximate those of an adult?

Accepted Answer

2 years

Answer

3 years

Answer

4 years

Answer

1 year

Question 10

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of kala-azar?

Accepted Answer

Liposomal Amphotericin B

Answer

Amphotericin B

Answer

Quinine

Answer

Paromomycin

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Biochemistry

General Medicine

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Pathology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology