NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: In Articular cartilage, most active chondrocytes are seen in ?

Zone 2. ***Zone 2*** - This is the **transitional (or middle) zone**, where chondrocytes are numerous and more metabolically active, responsible for synthesizing major components of the extracellular matrix. - Chondrocytes here are typically **ovoid or round**, arranged somewhat randomly, and are involved in maintaining the cartilage structure. *Zone 1* - This is the **superficial (or tangential) zone**, where chondrocytes are **flattened** and oriented parallel to the articular surface. - Their primary role is to resist shear forces, and they are generally less metabolically active compared to those in the transitional zone. *Zone 3* - This is the **deep (or radial) zone**, characterized by **columnar arrangements** of chondrocytes. [1] - While these chondrocytes are metabolically active and synthesize matrix components, they are generally less active than those in the transitional zone and are more involved in resisting compressive forces. *Zone 4* - This is the **calcified zone**, directly adjacent to subchondral bone, where chondrocytes are **sparse** and often hypertrophic prior to eventual calcification. - This zone acts as an interface between cartilage and bone, and its chondrocytes have significantly reduced metabolic activity once calcification occurs. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1184.

Q: Moure's sign (lateral displacement of the soft palate) is associated with which of the following conditions?

Peritonsillar abscess. ***Peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy)*** - **Moure's sign** refers to the **lateral displacement of the soft palate** toward the affected side, which is a classic finding in **peritonsillar abscess**. - This occurs due to the **accumulation of pus** between the tonsillar capsule and the superior constrictor muscle, causing the soft palate to bulge and deviate. - Other features include **severe throat pain**, trismus, drooling, and a "hot potato" voice. *Laryngeal carcinoma* - **Laryngeal carcinoma** presents with **hoarseness**, dysphagia, and potential airway obstruction. - While laryngeal examination may show mass lesions or vocal cord fixation, **soft palate displacement is not a feature** of laryngeal malignancy. *Chronic tonsillitis* - **Chronic tonsillitis** involves recurrent throat infections with tonsillar hypertrophy and cryptic debris. - It does **not cause acute soft palate displacement** like peritonsillar abscess does. *Acute epiglottitis* - **Acute epiglottitis** is characterized by **supraglottic inflammation** causing severe dysphagia, drooling, and stridor. - The pathology is at the **epiglottis level**, not the peritonsillar space, so **Moure's sign is absent**.

Q: What is the most common cause of a peritonsillar abscess?

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus. ***Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus*** - This bacterium, also known as **_Streptococcus pyogenes_**, is the most common cause of **streptococcal pharyngitis**, which is the precursor to most peritonsillar abscesses. - Peritonsillar abscesses are typically a complication of untreated or inadequately treated **tonsillitis**. *Streptococcus pneumoniae* - While **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** can cause upper respiratory infections like sinusitis and otitis media, it is not the primary cause of peritonsillar abscesses. - Its infections are more commonly associated with **pneumonia** and **meningitis**. *Staphylococcus aureus* - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is a common cause of skin and soft tissue infections, but it is less frequently isolated as the primary pathogen in peritonsillar abscesses. - It can be involved in **polymicrobial infections** or as a secondary invader. *H. influenzae* - **_Haemophilus influenzae_** can cause various infections, particularly in children, such as otitis media and epiglottitis. - However, it is not considered the most common cause of **peritonsillar abscesses**.

Q: What is the distance of the medial rectus from the limbus?

5.5 mm. ***5.5 mm*** - The **medial rectus muscle** inserts into the sclera at an average distance of **5.5 mm** from the limbus [1]. - This distance is an important anatomical landmark in **ophthalmic surgery** and ocular motility studies. - The insertion distances follow the **Spiral of Tillaux** pattern. *4.5 mm* - This distance does **not correspond** to any of the standard rectus muscle insertion points. - The closest insertion is the **medial rectus at 5.5 mm**, followed by the **inferior rectus at 6.5 mm** [1]. *7.0 mm* - This distance corresponds to the insertion point of the **lateral rectus muscle** from the limbus [1]. - It is the **second farthest insertion point** among the recti muscles. *10 mm* - This distance is incorrect for any of the **rectus muscle insertions** from the limbus. - The rectus muscles insert at varying distances following the **Spiral of Tillaux**: medial (5.5 mm), inferior (6.5 mm), lateral (7.0 mm), and superior (7.7 mm).

Q: Choroidal neovascularization is most commonly seen in which of the following refractive errors?

Myopia. ***Myopia*** - High myopia, particularly **pathologic myopia** (>6D or axial length >26mm), is a significant risk factor for **choroidal neovascularization (CNV)** among refractive errors due to the elongation of the eyeball stretching and thinning the choroid and Bruch's membrane. - The mechanical stress and associated **degenerative changes** in the posterior segment can lead to ruptures in Bruch's membrane, facilitating the growth of new, fragile blood vessels from the choroid into the subretinal space. - **Pathologic myopia** is the **second most common cause of CNV overall** (after age-related macular degeneration) and the **most common cause in patients under 50 years**. *Hypermetropia* - Hypermetropia (farsightedness) is associated with a **shorter axial length** of the eye, which generally reduces the risk of the structural changes that predispose to CNV. - While other conditions can cause CNV, hypermetropia itself is **not a risk factor** for its development. *Presbyopia* - Presbyopia is an **age-related loss of accommodation** due to hardening of the lens and weakening of the ciliary muscle, affecting near vision. - It is a refractive change related to the lens's flexibility and **not directly to the structural changes** in the choroid or retina that lead to CNV. *Astigmatism* - Astigmatism is a refractive error where the eye's cornea or lens has **irregular curvature**, causing blurred vision at all distances. - It is a **surface curvature issue** and does not typically involve the deep structural changes in the choroid or retina that are conducive to choroidal neovascularization.

Q: In senile nuclear cataract what type of myopia is seen?

Index myopia. **Index myopia** - **Senile nuclear cataract** involves opacification and hardening of the lens nucleus, which increases the **refractive index** of the lens. - This results in a stronger refractive power of the eye, causing light to focus in front of the retina, characteristic of **myopia**. *Curvature myopia* - Occurs when there is an increase in the **curvature of the cornea** or lens, leading to increased refractive power. - While lens curvature can change, the primary mechanism in nuclear cataracts is refractive index change, not solely curvature. *Axial myopia* - Arises from an **elongation of the eyeball**, making the axial length too long relative to the refractive power. - This is a structural change in the eye's shape, not directly caused by changes within the lens itself due to cataract. *Lenticular myopia* - This term is a broader category that refers to myopia caused by changes in the lens, which **index myopia** falls under. - However, "index myopia" is more specific and accurately describes the underlying mechanism in senile nuclear cataracts.

Q: Birdshot retinopathy is characterized by all except?

Unilateral. ***Unilateral*** - **Birdshot retinopathy** is characteristically a **bilateral** inflammatory condition affecting both eyes, even if the onset may be asymmetric. - The disease involves widespread inflammation of the **choroid** and **retina**, typically presenting in both eyes simultaneously or sequentially. - Unilateral presentation would be highly atypical and should prompt consideration of alternative diagnoses. *Common in females* - Birdshot retinopathy shows a **clear female predominance**, with approximately **2-3 times more females affected than males** (60-75% of cases). - This demographic trend is a well-established feature of the disease. - However, it does occur in both sexes and is still considered characteristic of the condition. *HLA-A29 positive* - A strong association with the **HLA-A29 allele** is a hallmark of birdshot retinopathy, found in **over 95% of affected individuals**. - This genetic marker is highly specific and often used to support the diagnosis. - HLA-A29 testing is considered part of the diagnostic workup. *Creamy yellow spots* - The presence of characteristic **creamy yellow-white choroidal lesions**, resembling birdshot scatter, is a defining clinical feature. - These lesions are typically located in the **mid-peripheral and posterior fundus**, distributed radially around the optic disc. - The "birdshot" appearance refers to the scattered pattern resembling shotgun pellet distribution.

Q: What is the average weight gain per day for infants from 6 weeks to 12 weeks of age?

30 g/d. ***30 g/d*** - From **6 to 12 weeks** of age, infants typically experience a rapid growth phase, with an average daily weight gain of approximately **30 grams** (or about 1 ounce per day). - This rate of gain is crucial for monitoring proper nutrition and overall development during this early stage of infancy. *40 g/d* - A daily weight gain of **40 g/d** is higher than the typical average for infants between 6 and 12 weeks of age. - While individual growth rates can vary, sustained gains at this level might raise questions about overfeeding or unusually rapid growth, although it is not usually a cause for concern. *50 g/d* - A weight gain of **50 g/d** is significantly above the expected average for infants in the 6- to 12-week age range. - Such rapid weight gain, if sustained, could indicate excessive caloric intake or potentially signal underlying metabolic issues that need evaluation. *60 g/d* - A daily weight gain of **60 g/d** is an exceptionally high rate for infants between 6 and 12 weeks, far exceeding the average. - This level of growth would be a strong indicator for further investigation into feeding practices and the infant's health to rule out any potential concerns.

Q: The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:

MRI. ***MRI*** - Cardiac MRI is considered the **gold standard** for assessing ventricular function, providing highly accurate and reproducible measurements of **ventricular volumes**, **ejection fraction**, and **myocardial mass**. - It offers excellent tissue characterization, allowing for direct visualization of **fibrosis**, **inflammation**, and other myocardial pathologies that can affect function. *Multislice CT* - While useful for assessing cardiac anatomy, particularly **coronary arteries**, Multislice CT involves **ionizing radiation** and has limitations in accurately assessing subtle changes in myocardial function compared to MRI. - Its strength lies more in **anatomical evaluation** (e.g., calcium scoring, coronary angiography) rather than detailed functional assessment. *Echocardiography* - Echocardiography is a widely available and useful first-line imaging modality for ventricular function, but it can be limited by **acoustic windows**, **operator dependency**, and **spatial resolution** compared to MRI. - While it provides good estimates of ejection fraction, particularly in simple cases, its 3D capabilities and tissue characterization are generally inferior to MRI. *Nuclear scan* - Nuclear scans (e.g., MUGA scans, SPECT) can assess ventricular function and myocardial perfusion, but they involve **ionizing radiation** and primarily provide **functional information** based on tracer uptake, not detailed structural or tissue characterization. - They are often used for evaluating **perfusion defects** and overall ejection fraction, but are less precise for detailed chamber quantification and tissue characterization than MRI.

Q: All of the following are causes of hemobilia, EXCEPT:

Hepatitis. ***Hepatitis*** - **Hepatitis** is an inflammation of the liver, typically caused by viral infections, alcohol, or autoimmune processes. While it can lead to liver damage and dysfunction, it does not typically cause **hemobilia**. - **Hemobilia** involves bleeding into the biliary tree, which is usually a result of vascular-biliary fistula formation; hepatitis primarily affects liver parenchymal cells and does not directly result in this type of bleeding. *Trauma to Abdomen* - **Abdominal trauma**, especially liver injuries, can lead to **vascular-biliary fistulae** or direct bleeding into the bile ducts, causing **hemobilia**. - Blunt or penetrating trauma can damage the liver parenchyma and blood vessels, allowing blood to enter the biliary system. *Malignancy* - **Malignant tumors** of the liver or biliary tract (e.g., **cholangiocarcinoma**, **hepatocellular carcinoma**) can erode into blood vessels and bile ducts, leading to **hemobilia**. - The growth of these tumors can rupture fragile vessels within the tumor or adjacent to it, causing blood to leak into the biliary tree. *Rupture of hepatic artery aneurysm* - A ruptured **hepatic artery aneurysm** is a significant and direct cause of **hemobilia**. - The forceful bleeding from the artery can breach the wall of an adjacent bile duct, creating a **fistula** and allowing arterial blood to enter the biliary system.

Question 1

In Articular cartilage, most active chondrocytes are seen in ?

Accepted Answer

Zone 2

Answer

Zone 1

Answer

Zone 4

Answer

Zone 3

Question 2

Moure's sign (lateral displacement of the soft palate) is associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Peritonsillar abscess

Answer

Laryngeal carcinoma

Answer

Chronic tonsillitis

Answer

Acute epiglottitis

Question 3

What is the most common cause of a peritonsillar abscess?

Accepted Answer

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

Answer

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer

Staphylococcus aureus

Answer

H. influenzae

Question 4

What is the distance of the medial rectus from the limbus?

Accepted Answer

5.5 mm

Answer

4.5 mm

Answer

7.0 mm

Answer

10 mm

Question 5

Choroidal neovascularization is most commonly seen in which of the following refractive errors?

Accepted Answer

Myopia

Answer

Hypermetropia

Answer

Presbyopia

Answer

Astigmatism

Question 6

In senile nuclear cataract what type of myopia is seen?

Accepted Answer

Index myopia

Answer

Curvature myopia

Answer

Axial myopia

Answer

Lenticular myopia

Question 7

Birdshot retinopathy is characterized by all except?

Accepted Answer

Unilateral

Answer

Common in females

Answer

Creamy yellow spots

Answer

HLA-A29 positive

Question 8

What is the average weight gain per day for infants from 6 weeks to 12 weeks of age?

Accepted Answer

30 g/d

Answer

40 g/d

Answer

50 g/d

Answer

60 g/d

Question 9

The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:

Accepted Answer

MRI

Answer

Multislice CT

Answer

Echocardiography

Answer

Nuclear scan

Question 10

All of the following are causes of hemobilia, EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Hepatitis

Answer

Trauma to Abdomen

Answer

Rupture of hepatic artery aneurysm

Answer

Malignancy

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

ENT

Microbiology

Ophthalmology

Pediatrics

Radiology

Surgery