NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements about slow sand filters is true?

Requires a longer duration for filtration. ***Requires a longer duration for filtration*** - **Slow sand filters** operate at a much lower filtration rate (0.1–0.4 m/h) compared to rapid sand filters, thus requiring a **longer duration** to process the same volume of water. - This low filtration rate allows for the formation of a biological layer, the **schmutzdecke**, which is responsible for much of the purification. *Is more expensive than other filters* - **Slow sand filters** are generally **less expensive to construct and operate** than rapid sand filters because they do not require extensive chemical coagulation, flocculation, or backwashing equipment. - Their primary cost is often land acquisition due to the **larger footprint** required. *Uses sand size of 0.4 - 0.7 mm* - **Slow sand filters** use **finer (smaller) sand**, typically with an **effective size of 0.15-0.30 mm**, which is smaller than the sand used in rapid sand filters (0.4-0.7 mm). - The smaller sand particle size contributes to the slower filtration rate and enhanced biological treatment. *Occupies less space than other filters* - **Slow sand filters** require **significantly more land area** than rapid sand filters for a given output because of their low filtration rate and large basin size. - This larger footprint can be a limiting factor in areas with high land costs.

Q: Which indicator best measures the operational efficiency of a malaria control programme?

Annual blood examination rate. ***Annual blood examination rate*** - The **Annual Blood Examination Rate (ABER)** directly reflects the proportion of the population that has been tested for malaria, indicating the reach and effectiveness of surveillance activities. - A high ABER suggests that active case detection and diagnosis are being effectively implemented, which is crucial for operational efficiency in identifying and managing cases. *Infant parasite rate* - The **infant parasite rate** measures the prevalence of malaria infection among infants, serving as an indicator of recent transmission intensity. - While important for assessing disease burden and transmission, it doesn't directly measure the operational effectiveness of interventions like testing or treatment programs. *Slide positivity rate* - The **slide positivity rate (SPR)** is the proportion of positive malaria slides among all slides examined, indicating the likelihood of an individual seeking testing to actually have malaria. - While SPR helps understand disease activity among tested individuals, it doesn't reflect the full operational reach of a program in the general population or the overall testing effort. *Mosquito bite rate* - The **mosquito bite rate** measures the number of mosquito bites per person per night, indicating the level of human exposure to malaria vectors. - This is an entomological indicator of transmission risk and the impact of vector control, but it does not directly assess the operational efficiency of human-centric interventions like diagnosis and treatment programs.

Q: Which MRSA strain type is most commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?

Phage type 80/81. ***Phage type 80/81*** - This **phage type**, particularly **epidemic methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (EMRSA) 15 and 16**, is historically and currently the most common cause of **hospital-acquired MRSA infections** worldwide. - It rapidly diversified and spread globally, becoming a significant nosocomial pathogen. *Phage type 83A* - While this phage type has been associated with **MRSA outbreaks**, it is not the most common strain type globally for hospital-acquired infections. - Its prevalence is more regional and sporadic compared to the widespread dominance of EMRSA 15/16. *Phage type 84* - **Phage type 84** is not widely recognized as a predominant strain associated with the majority of **hospital-acquired MRSA infections**. - Other, more virulent and successful clonal types have outcompeted it to become the most prevalent. *Phage type 85* - Similar to other less common types, **phage type 85** does not represent the major lineage responsible for the bulk of **hospital-acquired MRSA cases**. - The landscape of MRSA epidemiology is dominated by a few highly successful clonal complexes, of which 80/81 is a prime example.

Q: Which of the following statements about Corynebacterium diphtheriae is NOT true?

Toxin mediated by chromosomal gene. ***Toxin mediated by chromosomal gene*** - The **diphtheria toxin** is encoded by the **tox gene**, which is a lysogenic bacteriophage (cornyphage) gene, not a chromosomal gene. - This **bacteriophage** integrates into the bacterial chromosome, making toxigenic *C. diphtheriae* strains lysogenized. *Has metachromatic granules* - *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* is known for possessing **metachromatic granules** (also called Babes-Ernst bodies), which are inclusions that stain differently from the rest of the cell. - These granules are composed of **polyphosphate reserves** and are important for identification. *Does not invade deeper tissues* - *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* remains **localized** to the mucosal surface of the upper respiratory tract or skin, forming a **pseudomembrane**. - Its pathogenicity is primarily due to the **exotoxin** it produces, which then disseminates systemically. *Toxigenicity demonstrated by elek's test* - The **Elek test** is a standard laboratory assay used to determine the **toxigenicity** of *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* strains by detecting the production of diphtheria toxin. - It works by identifying the **immunoprecipitation lines** formed between antitoxin and toxin in an agar medium.

Q: Which of the following is the only ovoviviparous parasite among the options provided?

Strongyloides. ***Strongyloides*** - *Strongyloides stercoralis* stands out as the only **ovoviviparous** parasite among the options, meaning that its eggs hatch while still inside the uterus of the female worm. - The female worm lays **larvated eggs** that quickly hatch into **rhabditiform larvae** in the intestine or intestinal wall, which are then passed in the feces. *Ascaris* - *Ascaris lumbricoides* is **oviparous**, laying **unembryonated eggs** that are passed in the feces and require a period of maturation in the soil to become infective. - The eggs are robust and can survive for long periods in the environment before they are ingested. *Enterobius* - *Enterobius vermicularis* (pinworm) is also **oviparous**, with the female worm migrating to the perianal region to lay **embryonated eggs** on the skin. - These eggs are immediately infective to humans upon ingestion. *Ancylostome* - Ancylostomes (hookworms) are **oviparous** and lay **thin-shelled eggs** that are passed in the feces and hatch into rhabditiform larvae in the soil. - These larvae then develop into infective **filariform larvae** that penetrate the skin.

Q: Which of the following bacteria can be identified using phage typing?

Salmonella. ***Salmonella*** - **Phage typing** is the most classical and widely used method for subtyping *Salmonella* species based on their susceptibility to specific bacteriophages. - This technique is extensively used in **epidemiological tracking** of outbreaks, particularly for *Salmonella typhi* and *S. enteritidis*, allowing differentiation of strains within the same species. - **Most commonly associated organism** with phage typing in clinical microbiology and medical education. *Streptococcus* - While phage typing was historically used for *Streptococcus pyogenes* (Group A Streptococcus), it has largely been replaced by **molecular typing methods** and is not the primary association when phage typing is mentioned. - *Streptococcus* species are typically identified through **Gram staining**, **catalase tests**, **hemolysis patterns** on blood agar, and **serological methods** (Lancefield grouping). *Shigella* - **Phage typing** is not routinely used for *Shigella* identification or subtyping in clinical practice. - **Serotyping** and **molecular methods** like pulse-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) or whole genome sequencing are the standard approaches for *Shigella* differentiation. *Pseudomonas* - While **phage typing** has been used for *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* in research and outbreak investigations, it is not the primary or most commonly cited example of phage typing in medical education. - Routine identification relies on **culture characteristics** (pigment production, oxidase positive), **biochemical tests**, and **molecular methods**.

Q: What is a potential risk associated with the use of thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes?

Heart failure. ***Heart failure*** - Thiazolidinediones (TZDs), such as **pioglitazone** and **rosiglitazone**, can cause **fluid retention** and **volume expansion**, which may precipitate or worsen congestive heart failure. - This risk is higher in patients with pre-existing cardiac conditions and is a significant concern for these drugs. *Pulmonary fibrosis* - **Pulmonary fibrosis** is not a known or common adverse effect associated with thiazolidinedione use. - This condition is typically linked to certain other medications (e.g., **amiodarone**, **methotrexate**) or systemic diseases. *Myocarditis* - **Myocarditis**, inflammation of the heart muscle, is not a recognized side effect of thiazolidinediones. - Myocarditis is more commonly caused by viral infections, autoimmune diseases, or hypersensitivity reactions to certain drugs, but not TZDs. *Renal dysfunction* - While TZDs can cause fluid retention, they do not directly cause **renal dysfunction** or damage the kidneys. - In fact, some studies suggest they may have renoprotective effects due to reduced proteinuria, although fluid balance needs careful monitoring in patients with impaired renal function.

Q: Drug of choice for familial hypercholesterolemia?

Lovastatin. ***Lovastatin*** - **Statins** (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors) are the **first-line therapy** for familial hypercholesterolemia as they effectively lower **LDL cholesterol** levels by inhibiting cholesterol synthesis [1]. - While other agents can be used adjunctively, statins like lovastatin are the cornerstone for managing this genetic condition [2]. *Nicotinic acid* - **Nicotinic acid** (niacin) primarily lowers **triglycerides** and increases **HDL cholesterol**, but it is less potent than statins for reducing LDL-C, especially in familial hypercholesterolemia [1]. - Its use is often limited by significant **side effects** like flushing. *Cholestyramine* - **Cholestyramine** is a **bile acid sequestrant** that binds to bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption and mildly lowering LDL cholesterol. - It is less effective than statins and often causes **gastrointestinal side effects** such as constipation and bloating. *Gemfibrozil* - **Gemfibrozil** is a **fibrate**, primarily used to lower **triglyceride levels** and increase HDL cholesterol. - It has minimal impact on LDL cholesterol compared to statins and is not the primary treatment for familial hypercholesterolemia [2].

Q: Which of the following reduces the efficacy of oral contraceptives?

Griseofulvin. ***Griseofulvin*** - **Griseofulvin** is an antifungal agent known to induce liver enzymes, specifically the **cytochrome P450 system**. - Enzyme induction accelerates the metabolism and clearance of **oral contraceptives**, leading to lower plasma concentrations and reduced efficacy. *Erythromycin* - **Erythromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic that typically inhibits liver enzymes rather than inducing them. - While it can interfere with the metabolism of some drugs, it usually **increases** rather than decreases the plasma levels of co-administered medications, and is not known to reduce oral contraceptive efficacy. *Disulfiram* - **Disulfiram** is used to treat chronic alcoholism and inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase. - It does not significantly interact with the metabolism of **oral contraceptives** via the cytochrome P450 system or other mechanisms that would reduce their efficacy. *Cimetidine* - **Cimetidine** is an H2 receptor antagonist that is known to inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes. - This inhibition would likely **increase** the plasma concentration of drugs metabolized by these enzymes, such as oral contraceptives, rather than reducing their efficacy.

Q: Which second generation antihistaminic does not produce an active metabolite?

Cetirizine. ***Cetirizine*** - Cetirizine is unique among second-generation antihistamines as it is an **active metabolite** of hydroxyzine and **does not undergo further significant metabolism** to an active compound. - This characteristic contributes to its relatively **predictable pharmacokinetics** and reduced potential for drug interactions related to metabolism. *Loratadine* - Loratadine is a **prodrug** that is extensively metabolized in the liver by **CYP3A4 and CYP2D6** to its active metabolite, **desloratadine**. - Desloratadine is responsible for most of the **antihistaminic effects** of loratadine. *Terfenadine* - Terfenadine is a **prodrug** that is extensively metabolized by **CYP3A4** to its active metabolite, **fexofenadine**. - Due to its **cardiotoxicity** (QT prolongation) when its metabolism was inhibited, terfenadine was withdrawn from the market, and fexofenadine was developed as a safer alternative. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **cetirizine** does not produce an active metabolite, making it a valid answer for the question.

Question 1

Which of the following statements about slow sand filters is true?

Accepted Answer

Requires a longer duration for filtration

Answer

Is more expensive than other filters

Answer

Uses sand size of 0.4 - 0.7 mm

Answer

Occupies less space than other filters

Question 2

Which indicator best measures the operational efficiency of a malaria control programme?

Accepted Answer

Annual blood examination rate

Answer

Infant parasite rate

Answer

Slide positivity rate

Answer

Mosquito bite rate

Question 3

Which MRSA strain type is most commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?

Accepted Answer

Phage type 80/81

Answer

Phage type 83A

Answer

Phage type 85

Answer

Phage type 84

Question 4

Which of the following statements about Corynebacterium diphtheriae is NOT true?

Accepted Answer

Toxin mediated by chromosomal gene

Answer

Has metachromatic granules

Answer

Toxigenicity demonstrated by elek's test

Answer

Does not invade deeper tissues

Question 5

Which of the following is the only ovoviviparous parasite among the options provided?

Accepted Answer

Strongyloides

Answer

Ascaris

Answer

Enterobius

Answer

Ancylostoma

Question 6

Which of the following bacteria can be identified using phage typing?

Accepted Answer

Salmonella

Answer

Streptococcus

Answer

Shigella

Answer

Pseudomonas

Question 7

What is a potential risk associated with the use of thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes?

Accepted Answer

Heart failure

Answer

Pulmonary fibrosis

Answer

Myocarditis

Answer

Renal dysfunction

Question 8

Drug of choice for familial hypercholesterolemia?

Accepted Answer

Lovastatin

Answer

Nicotinic acid

Answer

Cholestyramine

Answer

Gemfibrozil

Question 9

Which of the following reduces the efficacy of oral contraceptives?

Accepted Answer

Griseofulvin

Answer

Disulfiram

Answer

Erythromycin

Answer

Cimetidine

Question 10

Which second generation antihistaminic does not produce an active metabolite?

Accepted Answer

Cetirizine

Answer

Loratadine

Answer

Terfenadine

Answer

None of the options

NEET-PG 2013

Community Medicine

Microbiology

Pharmacology