NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Which is the earliest secondary ossification center to develop chronologically?

Lower end of femur. ***Lower end of femur*** - The **distal femoral epiphysis** is typically the first secondary ossification center to appear, often present at birth or shortly before [1]. - Its presence at birth is an indicator of **fetal maturity**, making it a key developmental landmark [1]. *Upper end of humerus* - The **proximal humeral epiphysis** typically ossifies around 6 months of age, significantly later than the distal femur. - This center contributes to the growth of the humeral head and greater tubercle. *Lower end of fibula* - The **distal fibular epiphysis** appears around the first year of life, after both the distal femur and proximal humerus. - It forms part of the ankle joint and contributes to its stability. *Upper end of tibia* - The **proximal tibial epiphysis** typically ossifies around 6-12 months of age, well after the distal femur. - This center is crucial for the growth of the upper tibia and knee joint development.

Q: According to which section of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is the punishment for murder prescribed?

Sec 302 IPC. ***Sec 302 IPC*** - This section of the Indian Penal Code explicitly prescribes the **punishment for murder**, which can include death or life imprisonment. - While other sections define murder or deal with related offenses, Section 302 specifically addresses the **consequences** for committing murder. *Sec 301 IPC* - This section deals with **culpable homicide by causing death of person other than person whose death was intended**. - It specifies that if a person commits culpable homicide intending to cause the death of one person, but instead causes the death of another, they should be punished as if they had caused the death of the person they intended to kill. *Sec 300 IPC* - This section defines what constitutes **murder** under the Indian Penal Code. - It outlines the specific circumstances and intentions that elevate culpable homicide to the offense of murder. *Sec 304 IPC* - This section prescribes the **punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder**. - It specifies different levels of punishment based on the intention or knowledge of the offender, distinguishing it from murder.

Q: Cheilography is the study of ?

Lip prints. ***Lip prints:*** - **Cheiloscopy**, or cheilography, is the forensic study of **lip prints** for individual identification. - Just like fingerprints, lip prints are unique to each individual and can be used as evidence. *Finger prints:* - The study of **fingerprints** is known as **dermatoglyphics** or dactyloscopy, not cheilography. - Fingerprints are commonly used in forensic science due to their unique ridge patterns. *Breath analysis:* - **Breath analysis** typically involves examining exhaled air for substances like alcohol or gases, used for diagnostic or forensic purposes. - This field is known as **breathomics** or clinical breath testing, not cheilography. *Foot prints:* - The examination of **footprints** is known as **podoscopy** or **pedobarography**, used in forensics and biomechanics. - Footprints provide information about an individual's gait and foot structure.

Q: What is the minimum quantum of punishment for dowry death according to Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code?

7 years. ***7 years*** - Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) specifies that whoever commits **dowry death** shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than **seven years**. - This minimum sentence can extend to **imprisonment for life**, depending on the severity and circumstances of the case. *5 years* - This is **incorrect** as per Section 304B of the IPC, which clearly states the minimum punishment for **dowry death** is not less than seven years. - No provision within Section 304B allows for a minimum punishment of only five years. *Life imprisonment* - While life imprisonment is the **maximum** punishment that can be awarded for **dowry death** under Section 304B, it is not the **minimum quantum** of punishment. - The law mandates a lower limit of seven years, implying that life imprisonment is reserved for the most heinous cases. *10 years* - This is not the stipulated **minimum** punishment for **dowry death** under Section 304B of the IPC. - It falls between the minimum (seven years) and the maximum (life imprisonment) but is not the legally defined starting point for sentencing.

Q: Which of the following statements about polio is false?

Increased tendon reflexes. ***Increased tendon reflexes*** - Polio causes **lower motor neuron damage**, specifically to the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord [1]. - This damage leads to **flaccid paralysis** and **decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes**, not increased reflexes [3]. *99% non paralytic* - The vast majority of poliovirus infections (approximately 95-99%) are **asymptomatic** or cause only mild, non-specific symptoms. - Only a small percentage of infected individuals develop the more severe paralytic form of the disease. *Flaccid paralysis* - Poliovirus directly attacks and destroys **motor neurons** in the anterior horn of the spinal cord [1]. - This damage results in **muscle weakness** and loss of muscle tone, leading to **flaccid paralysis** [3]. *Aseptic meningitis* - About 1-5% of poliovirus infections can manifest as **aseptic meningitis**, characterized by symptoms like fever, headache, neck stiffness, and vomiting without bacterial infection [2]. - This form of meningitis is typically **self-limiting** and does not lead to paralysis [2].

Q: Macrophage tropic strains of HIV use which co-receptor?

CCR5. ***CCR5*** - **Macrophage-tropic** HIV strains, also known as **R5 strains**, primarily use the **CCR5 co-receptor** to enter target cells. - These strains are typically involved in the **initial infection** and transmission of HIV. - CCR5-tropic viruses are usually the **predominant strains transmitted** during sexual transmission. *CXCR4* - **T-cell-tropic** HIV strains, or **X4 strains**, preferentially utilize the **CXCR4 co-receptor** for cell entry. - These strains are associated with a **more rapid decline in CD4+ T-cell counts** during later stages of HIV infection. - Emergence of X4 strains is linked to **disease progression**. *CCR3* - While a chemokine receptor, **CCR3** is not a primary co-receptor used by common HIV strains for entry into macrophages or T cells. - CCR3 is primarily involved in **eosinophil chemotaxis** and allergic responses. *CCR2* - **CCR2** is another chemokine receptor but is **not a major co-receptor** for HIV entry. - While some laboratory-adapted strains may show minor usage, it is not clinically significant for macrophage-tropic HIV strains.

Q: Which organism is responsible for producing Draughtsman (Concentric Rings) on culture?

Bacillus anthracis. ***Bacillus anthracis*** - *Bacillus anthracis* is the organism responsible for producing the characteristic **"Draughtsman" or "Concentric Rings"** pattern on culture media - On blood agar, colonies show a **"Medusa head"** appearance with **concentric rings** and **comma-shaped projections** radiating outward from the center - This distinctive morphology results from chains of bacilli growing in parallel alignment, creating the characteristic pattern - The colonies are typically **non-hemolytic, grey-white, and have irregular edges** *H. ducreyi* - *Haemophilus ducreyi* causes **chancroid** and is difficult to culture - Colonies appear as **small, grey-yellow, translucent** with a **cohesive ("school of fish")** appearance when pushed across the agar - Does not produce concentric rings *B. pertussis* - *Bordetella pertussis* grows on **Bordet-Gengou agar** or **Regan-Lowe medium** - Colonies have a characteristic **"mercury droplet"** or **"bisected pearl"** appearance due to their smooth, shiny, convex morphology - This is completely different from the Draughtsman pattern *Pneumococci* - *Streptococcus pneumoniae* produces **alpha-hemolytic colonies** on blood agar - Colonies are **small, dome-shaped, mucoid** with a **central umbilication** (draughtsman or checker-piece appearance refers to the depression, not concentric rings) - The "draughtsman" term when applied to pneumococci refers to the flattened checker-piece shape, not the concentric ring pattern of *B. anthracis*

Q: Which gene of the hepatitis B virus has the longest coding sequence?

P gene. ***P gene*** - The **P gene** (polymerase gene) encodes the viral **reverse transcriptase**, which is crucial for replicating the HBV genome. - This enzyme is very large and complex, requiring the **longest coding sequence** to accommodate all its functional domains. *X gene* - The **X gene** encodes the **HBx protein**, which is a transcriptional transactivator and plays a role in hepatocarcinogenesis. - It has a relatively **short coding sequence** compared to the P gene. *S gene* - The **S gene** encodes the **surface antigens (HBsAg)**, which are involved in viral entry and immune evasion. - It has a **shorter coding sequence** than the P gene, as it primarily codes for structural proteins. *C gene* - The **C gene** encodes the **core protein (HBcAg)**, which forms the viral nucleocapsid, and the **HBeAg**. - Its coding sequence is also **shorter** than that of the P gene, reflecting its role in structural and regulatory functions.

Q: Which of the following is called Preisz-Nocard bacillus?

C. pseudotuberculosis. ***C. pseudotuberculosis*** - This bacterium is historically known as the **Preisz-Nocard bacillus**, named after its discoverers. - It is an important pathogen in animals, causing conditions like **caseous lymphadenitis** in sheep and goats. *C. diphtheriae* - This bacterium causes **diphtheria** and is known for producing a potent **exotoxin** that can lead to systemic complications. - It forms a characteristic **pseudomembrane** in the throat and is not associated with the Preisz-Nocard designation. *M. tuberculosis* - This is the causative agent of **tuberculosis** in humans, primarily affecting the lungs. - It is known for its **acid-fast staining** property and a complex pathogenesis involving granuloma formation. *Mycoplasma* - This genus includes bacteria that lack a **cell wall**, making them resistant to many common antibiotics. - They are known for causing various infections, including **atypical pneumonia** and genitourinary tract infections, but are not referred to as the Preisz-Nocard bacillus.

Q: An Englishman travels to a place which is resistant to chloroquine and mefloquine. What should he take as prophylaxis?

Atovaquone-proguanil. ***Atovaquone-proguanil*** - This combination, known as **Malarone**, is the most appropriate prophylactic agent for areas with **multi-drug resistant malaria**, including resistance to chloroquine and mefloquine [1], [2]. - It targets multiple stages of the parasite life cycle, providing excellent protection and is generally well-tolerated with specific **WHO and CDC recommendations** for chloroquine and mefloquine resistant areas [1], [3]. *Primaquine* - **Primaquine** is primarily used for **causal prophylaxis** against *P. vivax* and *P. ovale* to prevent relapse, not as primary prophylaxis [2]. - It is not typically recommended as the primary prophylactic agent in areas with **chloroquine and mefloquine resistance** and requires **G6PD testing** due to risk of hemolysis [1]. *Proguanil* - While proguanil is used for malaria prophylaxis, **proguanil alone** is not effective enough for prophylaxis in areas with multi-drug resistant malaria. - It is typically used in **combination with atovaquone** rather than as monotherapy for effective protection [3]. *Doxycycline* - **Doxycycline** is also an effective prophylactic agent for areas with **chloroquine and mefloquine-resistant malaria** and is commonly recommended [1], [2]. - While effective, it can cause **photosensitivity** and **gastrointestinal upset**, making atovaquone-proguanil the preferred first-line choice.

Question 1

Which is the earliest secondary ossification center to develop chronologically?

Accepted Answer

Lower end of femur

Answer

Upper end of humerus

Answer

Lower end of fibula

Answer

Upper end of tibia

Question 2

According to which section of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is the punishment for murder prescribed?

Accepted Answer

Sec 302 IPC

Answer

Sec 301 IPC

Answer

Sec 300 IPC

Answer

Sec 304 IPC

Question 3

Cheilography is the study of ?

Accepted Answer

Lip prints

Answer

Finger prints

Answer

Breath analysis

Answer

Foot prints

Question 4

What is the minimum quantum of punishment for dowry death according to Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code?

Accepted Answer

7 years

Answer

5 years

Answer

Life imprisonment

Answer

10 years

Question 5

Which of the following statements about polio is false?

Accepted Answer

Increased tendon reflexes

Answer

99% non paralytic

Answer

Aseptic meningitis

Answer

Flaccid paralysis

Question 6

Macrophage tropic strains of HIV use which co-receptor?

Accepted Answer

CCR5

Answer

CXCR4

Answer

CCR3

Answer

CCR2

Question 7

Which organism is responsible for producing Draughtsman (Concentric Rings) on culture?

Accepted Answer

Bacillus anthracis

Answer

B. pertussis

Answer

H. ducreyi

Answer

Pneumococci

Question 8

Which gene of the hepatitis B virus has the longest coding sequence?

Accepted Answer

P gene

Answer

X gene

Answer

S gene

Answer

C gene

Question 9

Which of the following is called Preisz-Nocard bacillus?

Accepted Answer

C. pseudotuberculosis

Answer

C. diphtheriae

Answer

M. tuberculosis

Answer

Mycoplasma

Question 10

An Englishman travels to a place which is resistant to chloroquine and mefloquine. What should he take as prophylaxis?

Accepted Answer

Atovaquone-proguanil

Answer

Primaquine

Answer

Doxycycline

Answer

Proguanil

NEET-PG 2013

Anatomy

Forensic Medicine

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Pharmacology