NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: A 40 year old male reported with recurrent episodes of oral ulcers, large areas of denuded skin and flaccid vesiculo-bullous eruptions. Which is the most important bedside investigation helpful in establishing the diagnosis -

Tzanck smear from the floor of bulla. ***Tzanck smear from the floor of bulla*** - A Tzanck smear from the floor of a bulla will reveal **acantholytic cells** (rounded keratinocytes that have lost their intercellular connections), which are characteristic of pemphigus, consistent with recurrent oral ulcers, denuded skin, and flaccid vesiculobullous eruptions. - This **bedside test** provides a rapid diagnosis by demonstrating the cytological features of acantholysis, differentiating it from other blistering disorders. *Gram staining of blister fluid* - This test is primarily used to identify **bacterial infections** and would show the morphology and Gram-staining characteristics of any bacteria present. - It would not provide information about the **acantholysis** or autoimmune nature of the blistering condition described. *Culture and sensitivity of blister fluid* - This investigation identifies **specific bacterial pathogens** and their antibiotic susceptibilities, which is useful for treating bacterial infections. - It would not help in diagnosing **autoimmune blistering diseases** like pemphigus, where bacteria are not the primary cause of the lesions. *Skin biopsy with immunofluorescence* - While a **skin biopsy with direct immunofluorescence** is the gold standard for confirming pemphigus by detecting autoantibodies, it is an **invasive procedure** requiring laboratory processing and is not considered a rapid bedside investigation. - The question specifically asks for the "most important **bed-side investigation**" helpful in establishing the diagnosis rapidly.

Q: What is the preferred treatment option for a 21-year-old college girl with mild endometriosis?

Continuous OC pill. ***Continuous OC pill*** - For **mild endometriosis** in a young woman, **continuous oral contraceptive pills (OCP)** are the **first-line medical treatment** according to current evidence-based guidelines (ACOG, ESHRE). - Continuous OCP use provides better suppression of endometriosis by creating a **stable hormonal environment** that prevents cyclic menstrual bleeding and retrograde menstruation, which can worsen endometriosis. - This approach effectively manages symptoms like **dysmenorrhea** and **pelvic pain** while preserving future fertility, and is well-tolerated in young women with the added benefit of menstrual suppression. *Cyclical OC pill* - While cyclical OCPs can help manage endometriosis symptoms, they are **less effective** than continuous OCPs because they allow withdrawal bleeding, which may perpetuate retrograde menstruation and endometrial implant stimulation. - Cyclical OCPs may still provide symptom relief but are considered a **second-line option** when continuous use is not acceptable to the patient. *Progesterone only pill* - **Progesterone-only pills (POP)** can suppress endometriosis by inducing amenorrhea and decidualization of endometrial implants, but they may cause **irregular bleeding patterns**, especially in the first few months. - While effective, they are generally considered when combined OCPs are contraindicated (e.g., migraine with aura, thrombotic risk) rather than as first-line for uncomplicated mild endometriosis. *Danazole* - **Danazol** is an androgenic agent that creates a hypoestrogenic environment, leading to atrophy of endometrial tissue, but it is **rarely used today** due to significant androgenic side effects. - Common side effects include **acne**, **hirsutism**, **weight gain**, and **voice deepening**, which are often unacceptable for a 21-year-old woman, making it an obsolete option for first-line management of mild endometriosis.

Q: Which type of pelvis is most commonly associated with dystocia?

Android. ***Android*** - The **android pelvis** has a **heart-shaped inlet** and converging side walls, which significantly increases the risk of **dystocia** due to restricted passage for the fetal head. - This pelvic shape is more common in men but can also be found in women, leading to a higher likelihood of **cephalopelvic disproportion**. *Platypelloid* - The **platypelloid pelvis** has a **flattened oval inlet** with a short anteroposterior diameter and a wide transverse diameter. - While it can lead to difficulties with engagement and rotation, it is not as commonly associated with severe dystocia as the android type, as the fetal head can often rotate to fit. *Gynaecoid* - The **gynaecoid pelvis** is considered the **ideal female pelvis** with a rounded or slightly oval inlet and well-proportioned diameters. - It is associated with the **easiest and most successful vaginal deliveries** and therefore is least likely to cause dystocia. *Anthropoid* - The **anthropoid pelvis** has an **oval inlet** with a long anteroposterior diameter and a relatively short transverse diameter. - While it can sometimes lead to an **occiput-posterior presentation**, it is not as strongly associated with dystocia as the android pelvis.

Q: How is Brodie's abscess classified?

Chronic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess). ***Chronic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess)*** - Brodie's abscess is a **subacute or chronic localized osteomyelitis**, characterized by an intraosseous abscess often surrounded by a thick layer of sclerotic bone. - It represents a **contained infection** within the bone, lacking the widespread inflammatory response seen in acute forms. *Acute osteomyelitis* - Characterized by a **rapid onset** of severe pain, fever, and inflammation, usually within days to weeks of infection. - It involves a **widespread inflammatory process** and potential for bone destruction, differentiated from the contained and indolent nature of Brodie's abscess. *Subacute osteomyelitis* - This term describes an osteomyelitis with a more gradual onset and less severe symptoms than acute osteomyelitis, typically lasting several weeks to a few months. - While Brodie's abscess can present subacutely, it is specifically classified as a **form of chronic osteomyelitis** due to its localized, walled-off nature and prolonged course. *Septic arthritis* - Involves an infection within a **joint space**, leading to inflammation and destruction of articular cartilage. - It is distinct from Brodie's abscess, which is an infection of the **bone tissue itself**, not the joint.

Q: What splint is used in CTEV after correction?

Dennis Brown splint. ***Dennis Brown splint*** - The **Dennis Brown splint** is specifically designed for maintaining the correction of **clubfoot (CTEV)** in infants to prevent recurrence. - It consists of a bar connecting two shoes that hold the feet in an **external rotation** and **abduction** position. *Bohler-Brown splint* - The **Bohler-Brown splint** is primarily used for the management of **tibial shaft fractures**. - It is a **traction splint** designed to maintain alignment and length of the fractured bone. *Thomas splint* - The **Thomas splint** is typically used for **femoral shaft fractures** to provide traction and reduce muscle spasm. - It is not indicated for the long-term management of clubfoot. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect as the **Dennis Brown splint** is a well-established and a primary splint used for CTEV after correction.

Q: Thurston Holland sign is seen in ?

Type II. ***Type II*** - The **Thurston Holland sign** is characteristic of a **Salter-Harris Type II fracture**, often described as a metaphyseal fragment (the "Thurston Holland fragment") remaining attached to the epiphyseal plate. - This fragment typically occurs at the corner of the **metaphysis**, making the fracture line extend obliquely through the physis and then along the metaphysis. *Type I* - A **Salter-Harris Type I fracture** involves a clean horizontal separation through the **growth plate (physis)** without involving the metaphysis or epiphysis. - No metaphyseal fragment is seen in Type I fractures, distinguishing it from the Thurston Holland sign. *Type III* - **Salter-Harris Type III fractures** extend from the **physis into the epiphysis**, creating an intra-articular fracture involving the joint surface. - These fractures do not involve a metaphyseal fragment, as they solely affect the physis and epiphysis. *Type IV* - **Salter-Harris Type IV fractures** involve a fracture line extending through the **epiphysis, physis, and metaphysis**, effectively dividing the bone into three parts. - While complex, Type IV injuries do not specifically describe the characteristic metaphyseal fragment that defines the Thurston Holland sign.

Q: Which of the following is considered a poor prognostic factor for schizophrenia?

Early onset. ***Early onset*** - An **earlier age of onset** (e.g., childhood or early adolescence) for schizophrenia is consistently associated with a **worse long-term prognosis**, including more severe symptoms, greater functional impairment, and a lower likelihood of full recovery. - This is thought to be due to the greater developmental disruption caused by the illness when it begins at a younger age. *Presence of depression* - While depression is common in schizophrenia, it is generally considered to be a **treatable co-occurring condition** rather than a primary poor prognostic factor for the core psychotic disorder itself. - Effective treatment for depression can actually **improve overall quality of life** and adherence to antipsychotic medication. *Presence of stressor* - The presence of a significant psychosocial stressor at the onset of schizophrenia is often associated with a **better prognosis**, as it suggests a more reactive and potentially remitting course. - This indicates that the illness might be more environmentally triggered and less intrinsically severe. *Female sex* - **Female sex** is typically associated with a **somewhat better prognosis** in schizophrenia, with a later age of onset and potentially less severe symptoms compared to males. - This may be influenced by hormonal factors and differences in social support networks.

Q: Which type of arthritis is characterized by the absence of a periosteal reaction?

Neuropathic arthritis. ***Neuropathic arthritis*** - **Neuropathic arthritis** (**Charcot joint**) is characterized by progressive joint destruction due to loss of proprioception and pain sensation, leading to severe bone and joint damage without a typical **periosteal reaction**. - The absence of normal protective reflexes results in repetitive microtrauma, often leading to bone resorption and fragmentation rather than new bone formation (periosteal reaction). *Psoriatic arthritis* - **Psoriatic arthritis** often presents with distinctive **periosteal reactions**, particularly at entheses and along the shafts of small bones (e.g., "pencil-in-cup" deformities and fluffy periostitis) [1]. - These periosteal changes are a hallmark of the inflammatory process affecting bone and connective tissues in psoriatic arthritis. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Rheumatoid arthritis** primarily involves the synovium, leading to erosions rather than prominent periosteal reactions in early stages [1]. - While periostitis can occur in chronic, destructive rheumatoid arthritis, it is not a primary or characteristic finding compared to other inflammatory arthritides. *Reactive arthritis* - **Reactive arthritis** frequently causes **periosteal reactions**, particularly at entheses (where tendons and ligaments attach to bone) and along the shafts of long bones, often described as "fluffy" periostitis [1]. - These new bone formations are a key radiological feature distinguishing it from other types of inflammatory arthritis.

Q: In which condition is the 'Picture frame vertebra' seen?

Paget disease. ***Paget disease*** - The "picture frame vertebra" sign is a classic radiographic finding in **Paget disease**, characterized by **cortical thickening** and sclerosis around the vertebral body circumference, resembling a picture frame. - This appearance is due to the disordered bone remodeling processes (increased osteoclastic bone resorption followed by disorganized osteoblastic new bone formation) characteristic of Paget disease. *Osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)* - Osteopetrosis is characterized by **increased bone density** due to defective osteoclast function, leading to bones that are dense but brittle. - It does not typically present with the specific "picture frame" appearance of individual vertebrae, but rather with diffuse sclerosis of bones. *Ankylosing spondylitis (AS)* - Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the **axial skeleton**, causing inflammation and eventual fusion of the vertebrae (leading to a "bamboo spine" appearance). - While it involves the spine, it does not produce the "picture frame" vertebral sign seen in Paget disease. *Osteoporosis* - Osteoporosis is characterized by **reduced bone mass** and microstructural deterioration of bone tissue, leading to increased bone fragility and fracture risk. - Radiographically, it shows **decreased bone density** and possible vertebral compression fractures, which is the opposite of the increased bone density and cortical thickening seen in the "picture frame" sign.

Question 1

A 40 year old male reported with recurrent episodes of oral ulcers, large areas of denuded skin and flaccid vesiculo-bullous eruptions. Which is the most important bedside investigation helpful in establishing the diagnosis -

Accepted Answer

Tzanck smear from the floor of bulla

Answer

Gram staining of blister fluid

Answer

Culture and sensitivity of blister fluid

Answer

Skin biopsy with immunofluorescence

Question 2

What is the preferred treatment option for a 21-year-old college girl with mild endometriosis?

Accepted Answer

Continuous OC pill

Answer

Cyclical OC pill

Answer

Progesterone only pill

Answer

Danazole

Question 3

Which type of pelvis is most commonly associated with dystocia?

Accepted Answer

Android

Answer

Platypelloid

Answer

Gynaecoid

Answer

Anthropoid

Question 4

How is Brodie's abscess classified?

Accepted Answer

Chronic osteomyelitis (Brodie's abscess)

Answer

Acute osteomyelitis

Answer

Subacute osteomyelitis

Answer

Septic arthritis

Question 5

What splint is used in CTEV after correction?

Accepted Answer

Dennis Brown splint

Answer

Bohler-Brown splint

Answer

Thomas splint

Answer

None of the options

Question 6

Thurston Holland sign is seen in ?

Accepted Answer

Type II

Answer

Type I

Answer

Type III

Answer

Type IV

Question 7

Which of the following disorders is classified under somatic symptom and related disorders in the DSM-5?

Accepted Answer

Conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder)

Answer

Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

Answer

Phobic disorders (e.g., social anxiety disorder)

Answer

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

Question 8

Which of the following is considered a poor prognostic factor for schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

Early onset

Answer

Presence of depression

Answer

Presence of stressor

Answer

Female sex

Question 9

Which type of arthritis is characterized by the absence of a periosteal reaction?

Accepted Answer

Neuropathic arthritis

Answer

Psoriatic arthritis

Answer

Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer

Reactive arthritis

Question 10

In which condition is the 'Picture frame vertebra' seen?

Accepted Answer

Paget disease

Answer

Osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis (AS)

Answer

Osteoporosis

NEET-PG 2013

Dermatology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Psychiatry

Radiology