NEET-PG 2013 Practice Questions

Q: Percentage of adrenaline with lignocaine for local infiltration is?

1:50000. ***1:50000*** - This concentration of **adrenaline (epinephrine)** is commonly used with **lignocaine (lidocaine)** for local infiltration to prolong the anesthetic effect and reduce bleeding. - At this concentration, adrenaline acts as a **vasoconstrictor**, decreasing systemic absorption of lignocaine and allowing a higher dose locally. *1:1000* - This concentration of adrenaline is typically used for the treatment of **anaphylaxis** and is considered too high for local infiltration with lignocaine. - Using such a high concentration locally can lead to severe **vasoconstriction**, tissue ischemia, and systemic side effects like **tachycardia** and **hypertension**. *1:10000* - This concentration is too strong for routine local infiltration and is usually reserved for **cardiac arrest** protocols or severe anaphylaxis when administered intravenously. - It would carry a significant risk of **tissue damage** and systemic effects if used for local infiltration. *1:200000* - While sometimes used, **1:50000** is generally the more common and effective concentration for achieving **hemostasis** and prolonging anesthesia during local infiltration. - A 1:200000 concentration provides a lesser degree of **vasoconstriction**, potentially leading to less prolonged local anesthetic effect and reduced bleeding control compared to 1:50000.

Q: A female patient presents with hirsutism, amenorrhea, and obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS). ***Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)*** - **Hirsutism**, **amenorrhea** (or oligomenorrhea), and **obesity** are classic clinical features of PCOS, reflecting hyperandrogenism and insulin resistance [2]. - PCOS is a diagnosis of exclusion and involves chronic anovulation and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound [3], though these are not explicitly mentioned, the constellation of symptoms strongly points to it. *Androgen-secreting ovarian tumor* - While it can cause **hirsutism** and **amenorrhea**, the onset is typically **rapid** and severe, with very high androgen levels, and obesity is not a primary feature. - Ovarian tumors are generally less common than PCOS and may present with a palpable mass or specific imaging findings. *Congenital adrenal hyperplasia* - This genetic condition often presents in childhood or adolescence with varying degrees of **virilization** and menstrual irregularities due to enzyme deficiencies in cortisol synthesis [1]. - While it causes **hirsutism** and potentially **amenorrhea**, obesity is not a direct consequence, and the patient's age of presentation and specific symptom pattern are less typical for adult-onset CAH in this context. *Cushing's syndrome* - Characterized by **central obesity**, **moon facies**, **buffalo hump**, **striae**, and proximal muscle weakness due to chronic glucocorticoid excess. - Although it can cause **menstrual irregularities** and mild **hirsutism** [2], the overall clinical picture including the absence of other specific Cushingoid features makes it less likely than PCOS.

Q: For routine diagnostic purposes, endometrial biopsy is usually done at which phase of the menstrual cycle?

Just before menstruation. ***Just before menstruation*** - An endometrial biopsy is typically performed in the **late secretory phase (just before menstruation)**. This timing is crucial for evaluating the endometrial response to progesterone and for detecting abnormalities that may be evident during this phase. - This timing allows for the assessment of the **full development of the secretory glands** and stroma, which can reveal issues like **inadequate luteal phase** or **endometrial hyperplasia** more clearly. *10-12 days after menstruation* - This time point corresponds to the mid-proliferative phase, where the endometrium is still growing under **estrogen influence**. - While suitable for evaluating proliferative changes, it might **miss subtle secretory phase abnormalities** or early signs of hyperplasia that are more evident later. *Just after menstruation* - This period is the early proliferative phase, where the endometrium is **thin and regenerating**. - Biopsying at this time might yield insufficient tissue for comprehensive evaluation and would be too early to assess **hormonal responses** that occur later in the cycle. *At the time of ovulation* - Ovulation marks the transition from the proliferative to the secretory phase, influenced by a surge in **luteinizing hormone (LH)**. - An endometrial biopsy at this phase would primarily show a proliferative endometrium and would not provide adequate information about the **key features of the secretory phase**, which are important for diagnostic purposes related to fertility or abnormal bleeding.

Q: A patient presents with bilateral ovarian carcinoma, capsule involvement, ascites, and paraaortic lymphadenopathy. What is the appropriate stage of the disease?

Stage 3C. ***Stage 3C*** - **Bilateral ovarian carcinoma** with **capsule involvement**, **ascites**, and especially **paraaortic lymph node metastases** are defining features of Stage IIIC ovarian cancer. - Involvement of **retroperitoneal lymph nodes**, including paraaortic nodes, automatically upstages the disease to Stage III, irrespective of other abdominal spread. *Stage 1C* - This stage refers to ovarian cancer confined to **one or both ovaries**, with evidence of rupture, capsule involvement, or malignant cells in ascites/peritoneal washings, but **without lymph node involvement**. - The presence of **paraaortic lymphadenopathy** in this patient immediately excludes Stage 1C. *Stage 2C* - Stage 2 ovarian cancer involves one or both ovaries with **pelvic extension** beyond the ovaries, but still **without lymph node involvement**. - The patient's involvement of **paraaortic lymph nodes** goes beyond pelvic extension and therefore excludes Stage 2C. *Stage 4C* - Stage 4 ovarian carcinoma involves **distant metastasis** beyond the peritoneal cavity or distant lymph nodes (e.g., pleural effusion with positive cytology, parenchymal liver/spleen metastasis). - While paraaortic lymphadenopathy indicates advanced disease, it falls within the criteria for Stage 3 due to its location, not Stage 4.

Q: Which layer of the epidermis is primarily involved in spongiosis?

Stratum spinosum. ***Stratum spinosum*** - **Spongiosis** is characterized by **intercellular edema** (fluid accumulation between cells) within the epidermis [1], primarily affecting the **stratum spinosum** [2]. - The cells of the stratum spinosum, known as **keratinocytes**, become separated by this edema, giving the tissue a "spongy" appearance on histology due to the preservation of **desmosomal attachments**. *Stratum basale* - The **stratum basale** is the deepest layer of the epidermis, responsible for **cell proliferation** and attachment to the basement membrane. - While edema can affect all epidermal layers in severe cases, spongiosis specifically refers to the intercellular edema most prominent in the stratum spinosum [2]. *Stratum corneum* - The **stratum corneum** is the outermost layer of the epidermis, composed of dead, flattened **keratinocytes** that provide a protective barrier. - Edema in this layer is less common and would not be described as spongiosis, which implies living cells with preserved intercellular junctions. *Stratum granulosum* - The **stratum granulosum** lies above the stratum spinosum and is characterized by cells containing **keratohyalin granules**. - While it can be affected by intercellular edema, the most pronounced and characteristic spongiosis occurs in the stratum spinosum where cells are still actively synthesizing keratin and have strong desmosomal connections [2]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, p. 636. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, p. 1166.

Q: Pyromania is characterized by an irresistible urge to engage in which of the following behaviors?

Set objects on fire. ***Set objects on fire*** - Pyromania is a **mental disorder** characterized by a powerful, **irresistible urge to start fires**. - The individual experiences **tension or arousal** before the act, followed by **pleasure, gratification, or relief** after setting a fire or witnessing its effects. - This is classified as an **impulse control disorder** in psychiatric nosology. *Overeat* - This behavior is characteristic of **eating disorders** such as **binge eating disorder** or **bulimia nervosa**, not pyromania. - While impulses are involved, the specific urge and gratification are linked to food consumption, not fire-setting. *Excessive sleeping* - **Hypersomnia** or **excessive daytime sleepiness** is a symptom of various sleep disorders or medical conditions, not an impulse control disorder. - There is no direct association between the urge to sleep excessively and the diagnostic criteria for pyromania. *Steal items* - This behavior is characteristic of **kleptomania**, another impulse control disorder. - While both pyromania and kleptomania involve irresistible urges, kleptomania specifically involves stealing objects not needed for personal use or monetary value.

Q: Which of the following is the most classic example of a delusion?

Othello syndrome. ***Othello syndrome*** - **Othello syndrome**, also known as **delusional jealousy**, is characterized by a *fixed, unfounded belief* that one's partner is being unfaithful. - This is a classic example of a **delusion** because it involves a **fixed, false belief** that is firmly held despite clear evidence to the contrary and is not amenable to logic or persuasion. - The syndrome demonstrates all core features of a delusion: **unshakeable conviction**, **imperviousness to contradictory evidence**, and **significant impact on behavior**. *De Clérambault's syndrome* - **De Clérambault's syndrome**, or **erotomania**, is a delusional disorder where an individual *believes another person, often of higher status, is in love with them*. - While this is also a classic example of a delusional disorder, **Othello syndrome** is more frequently cited in clinical teaching as the prototypical example of an isolated, circumscribed delusion. *Pyromania* - **Pyromania** is an **impulse control disorder** characterized by recurrent, deliberate fire-setting driven by tension or arousal. - It involves **behavioral impulsivity** and *not a fixed false belief*, thus it is not a delusion. *Kleptomania* - **Kleptomania** is another **impulse control disorder** characterized by recurrent failure to resist urges to steal objects not needed for personal use. - Like pyromania, it represents a **disorder of impulse control** rather than a disorder of thought content or belief system.

Q: What is the core feature required for diagnosing a manic episode?

Elevated mood. ***Elevated mood*** - The **DSM-5 criteria** for a manic episode explicitly state that an abnormally and persistently **elevated, expansive, or irritable mood** must be present for at least one week. - This core mood disturbance is what differentiates mania from other psychiatric conditions and is a prerequisite for diagnosis. *Grandiosity* - While **grandiosity** (inflated self-esteem or sense of importance) is a common associated symptom of a manic episode, it is not the sole diagnostic requirement. - It is one of several symptom criteria that must be present in addition to the mood disturbance for a diagnosis of mania. *Decreased appetite* - **Decreased appetite** is generally not a feature of a manic episode; in fact, individuals in a manic state often have an **increased appetite** or engage in impulsive eating due to lack of inhibition. - A decreased appetite is more commonly associated with depressive episodes. *Increased sleep* - **Increased sleep** is contrary to the typical presentation of a manic episode, where individuals often experience a **decreased need for sleep** and can function on very little sleep, feeling energized. - A significant reduction in the need for sleep is a characteristic symptom of mania, not an increase.

Q: Investigation with least radiation dose in the diagnosis of Meckel's diverticulum is -

Technetium -99m scanning. ***Technetium-99m scanning*** - **Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan** (Meckel's scan) is the **gold standard investigation** for diagnosing Meckel's diverticulum with ectopic gastric mucosa - Among the investigations that can actually **diagnose Meckel's diverticulum**, it has the **lowest radiation dose** (approximately 1-2 mSv) - The radioisotope is specifically taken up by ectopic gastric mucosa, providing both diagnostic utility and relatively low radiation exposure - **Sensitivity: 85-95%** for detecting ectopic gastric mucosa in Meckel's diverticulum - The radiation dose is comparable to a few months of natural background radiation and significantly lower than CT or contrast studies *MRI* - While **MRI uses no ionizing radiation**, it is **not a standard or practical investigation** for diagnosing Meckel's diverticulum - MRI cannot identify ectopic gastric mucosa specifically - It is rarely used in clinical practice for this indication - The question asks about investigation "in the diagnosis" of Meckel's diverticulum, implying a test that is actually used diagnostically *CT* - **Computed Tomography (CT)** delivers a **high radiation dose** (typically 5-10 mSv or more) - While it can identify structural abnormalities, it is not specific for Meckel's diverticulum - Not the first-line investigation for this condition *Contrast radiography* - **Contrast studies** (barium studies) use **moderate ionizing radiation** (3-5 mSv) - Limited utility in diagnosing Meckel's diverticulum as it primarily assesses luminal patency - Cannot identify ectopic gastric mucosa - Lower sensitivity compared to Tc-99m scanning

Q: On imaging, diffuse axonal injury is characterized by -

Multiple small petechial hemorrhages. ***Multiple small petechial hemorrhages*** - Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) is characterized on imaging by numerous **small petechial hemorrhages** at the **gray-white matter junction**, **corpus callosum**, and **brainstem**. - These microhemorrhages are the **hallmark imaging finding** and are best visualized on MRI (GRE/SWI sequences), though they can be seen on CT as small hyperdensities. - This is the **most specific** and characteristic finding that defines DAI. *Patchy ill-defined low density lesion mixed with small hyperdensities of petechial hemorrhage* - While this description can be seen in DAI (combining edema with microhemorrhages), it is **less specific** and could represent other entities. - This mixed pattern is more commonly associated with **contusions** where there is more prominent parenchymal injury with larger areas of edema and hemorrhage. - DAI classically shows predominantly **small punctate hemorrhages** rather than larger patchy low-density lesions. *Crescentic extra-axial hematoma* - A crescentic extra-axial collection describes a **subdural hematoma**, which is an entirely separate entity from DAI. - Subdural hematomas are located between the dura and arachnoid membranes, whereas DAI involves direct **axonal shearing injury** within brain parenchyma. *White matter lucencies* - This is a **non-specific finding** that can occur in many conditions including ischemia, demyelination, and chronic small vessel disease. - While DAI can cause white matter edema leading to lucencies, this does not capture the **characteristic petechial hemorrhages** that define the condition on imaging.

Question 1

Percentage of adrenaline with lignocaine for local infiltration is?

Accepted Answer

1:50000

Answer

1:1000

Answer

1:10000

Answer

1:200000

Question 2

A female patient presents with hirsutism, amenorrhea, and obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

Answer

Androgen-secreting ovarian tumor

Answer

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Answer

Cushing's syndrome

Question 3

For routine diagnostic purposes, endometrial biopsy is usually done at which phase of the menstrual cycle?

Accepted Answer

Just before menstruation

Answer

10-12 days after menstruation

Answer

Just after menstruation

Answer

At the time of ovulation

Question 4

A patient presents with bilateral ovarian carcinoma, capsule involvement, ascites, and paraaortic lymphadenopathy. What is the appropriate stage of the disease?

Accepted Answer

Stage 3C

Answer

Stage 1C

Answer

Stage 2C

Answer

Stage 4C

Question 5

Which layer of the epidermis is primarily involved in spongiosis?

Accepted Answer

Stratum spinosum

Answer

Stratum basale

Answer

Stratum corneum

Answer

Stratum granulosum

Question 6

Pyromania is characterized by an irresistible urge to engage in which of the following behaviors?

Accepted Answer

Set objects on fire

Answer

Overeat

Answer

Excessive sleeping

Answer

Steal items

Question 7

Which of the following is the most classic example of a delusion?

Accepted Answer

Othello syndrome

Answer

Pyromania

Answer

Kleptomania

Answer

De Clérambault's syndrome

Question 8

What is the core feature required for diagnosing a manic episode?

Accepted Answer

Elevated mood

Answer

Decreased appetite

Answer

Increased sleep

Answer

Grandiosity

Question 9

Investigation with least radiation dose in the diagnosis of Meckel's diverticulum is -

Accepted Answer

Technetium -99m scanning

Answer

MRI

Answer

CT

Answer

Contrast radiography

Question 10

On imaging, diffuse axonal injury is characterized by -

Accepted Answer

Multiple small petechial hemorrhages

Answer

Patchy ill-defined low density lesion mixed with small hyperdensities of petechial hemorrhage

Answer

Crescentic extra-axial hematoma

Answer

White matter lucencies

NEET-PG 2013

Dental

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Psychiatry

Radiology